DC0-260 dernières questions d'examen certification Dell et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: DC0-260
Nom d'Examen: Dell (Dell Certified Storage Networking Professional)
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 In a Dell / EMC only Storage Area Network (SAN), SAN Copy requires which three of
the following? (Choose three)
A. Access Logix must be running on all participating storage arrays.
B. SnapView or MirrorView must be installed on the storage array running SAN Copy.
C. Either the Source or Destination logical units must reside on an array running SAN
copy
D. The Navishere Host Agent does not need to be installed on all hosts that own LUNs to
be SAN copied.
E. All SAN Copy ports must be zoned correctly, in order for SAN copy to have access to
these storage arrays.
Answer: A, C, E

Dell   certification DC0-260   certification DC0-260

NO.2 SAN Copy can be configured to
A. have simultaneous sessions between multiple storage systems
B. provide synchronous mirroring between multiple storage systems
C. allows UNIX hosts to copy LUNs to be accessed by Windows hosts
D. create copies of Source LUNs that are only 20% of the original size
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which three statements about Navisphere Analyzer are correct? (choose three)
A. Navisphere Analyzer is included within Navisphere Manager
B. Navisphere Analyzer is optional software that can track performance trends on Dell /
EMC storage arrays.
C. Navisphere Analyzer allows you to automatically record, capture and display
performance data metrics.
D. Navisphere Analyzer can fine tune parameters of storage arrays, Identifying potential
bottlenecks, such as spindle count starvation within a RAID configuration and read/write
cache adjustments to increase performance.
Answer: B, C, D

Dell examen   DC0-260   certification DC0-260

NO.4 How many LUNs are required for the Write intent Log (WIL)?
A. one per array
B. two per array
C. one per each mirrored LUN
D. two per each mirrored LUN
Answer: B

Dell examen   DC0-260   DC0-260   DC0-260 examen

NO.5 Which LUN duplication method would have the least initial performance impact on a
source LUN To create and be the easiest and least costly to implement?
A. use SAN copy to copy the source LUN
B. mirror the source LUN to a second host
C. clone the source LUN, then mount it from a second host
D. take a snapshot of the source LUN, then mount it from a second host
Answer: D

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TK0-201 dernières questions d'examen certification CompTIA et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: TK0-201
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CTT+ Exam (Certified Technical Trainer))
Questions et réponses: 247 Q&As

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NO.1 An instructor is conducting a virtual class and finds that several learners do not have computer systems
that actually meet the guidelines for the course. Due to this, certain required shared applications will not
work for them. Which of the following represents the BEST action for the instructor.?
A. Contact the course coordinator to remind learners of the requirements
B. Remove the sharing of applications as the entire class cannot participate.
C. Change the applications that are shared to ones that are compatible to all systems
D. Request the learners use systems that are compatible with the course.
Answer: D

CompTIA   certification TK0-201   certification TK0-201

NO.2 An instructor is preparing to start a class where several learners have arrived late due to bad weather.
The general mood of the learners is poor. Which of the following is the BEST way to handle this situation?
A. Use humor that will create a positive mood.
B. Tell the learners that the class will run late that day
C. Have the learners introduce themselves.
D. Proceed with the course material.
Answer: A

CompTIA   certification TK0-201   TK0-201 examen

NO.3 After a training class was completed, the instructor conducted several passive on the job observations
of each learner who attended the class. Which of the following is the primary benefit of the observations?
A. It measures the application of the skills taught.
B. It validates the quality of the course material.
C. It requires the learners to use what they learned.
D. It helps to reinforce the learning concepts.
Answer: A

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NO.4 During a computer software training class the projector fails. Which of the following should the
instructor do FIRST?
A. Attempt to quickly fix the projector.
B. Move the class to another room.
C. Take a class break and find another projector.
D. Cancel the class and reschedule for a later date.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A company is preparing to roll-out a training course on advanced accounting skills. The company has
asked a contract instructor to facilitate the course. The instructor has no background in accounting. Which
of the following should the instructor do?
A. Ask to team teach the course with an expert
B. Accept the offer contingent upon six weeks of preparation time
C. Decline the offer based on lack of knowledge of accounting principles
D. Accept the offer and learn the content by observing accounting experts
Answer: C

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NO.6 An instructor is leading a virtual class when several learners start having significant bandwidth issues
that cause them to drop out of the live session. Which of the following represents the BEST solution to the
problem?
A. Inform the learners that most of the same material will be covered in the next class session.
B. Have the learners watch a recorded session of the class.
C. Request that those learners with bandwidth issues be moved to an in-person live class,
D. Cancel the current session and schedule a make-up class.
Answer: B

CompTIA   TK0-201   certification TK0-201   TK0-201

NO.7 Learners are MOST likely to learn a skill successfully when a topic is presented:
A. In a cluster with other, similar skills
B. Just in time for the learner to apply it
C. As part of a summary of related skills
D. As part of a review session prior to an examination
Answer: B

CompTIA   certification TK0-201   TK0-201

NO.8 Which of the following statements BEST describes the value of using a variety of question types during
instruction?
A. Regularly asking questions during a course helps to identify those that are paying attention.
B. Effective use of questions will enhance learners' conceptual understanding; encourage deep thinking
and meaningful participation.
C. Using a variety of questions during instruction prevents anyone in the group from becoming
disinterested with the same question types.
D. Questions asked often during a course will keep learners engaged, it is not important if they do not
know the correct answer.
Answer: B

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NO.9 An instructor wants to demonstrate a technical topic that requires a certain procedure. Which of the
following is the BEST way to achieve this?
A. Have the learners brainstorm ideas on the topic.
B. Have the learners role play the topic.
C. Hold an open discussion on the topic.
D. Show the learners via a desktop sharing demonstration.
Answer: D

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NO.10 At the beginning of a training session, a trainer instructed the learners to use Brand X computers
because the instructional design assumes Brand X computers. Many learners objected. They felt that
since they will be using Brand Y computers at work, they should work on Brand Y computers in the room.
If the instructor needs to use Brand X computers to instruct, which of the following is the MOST
appropriate way to respond to the learners' need to be able to apply course materials to job
requirements?
A. First explain to the class how the materials apply to Brand X. and then do the same for Brand Y.
B. Do not mention either brand by name, but refer learners to the manual covering each of the respective
brands.
C. Provide a guide that relates Brand X to Brand Y computer functions
D. After providing the planned instruction on the Brand X computers, discuss differences that Brand Y
computers present to the user.
Answer: D

CompTIA   TK0-201   certification TK0-201   TK0-201 examen

NO.11 An instructor uses multiple forms of media to help the class understand a difficult topic. Unfortunately
learners are still having a hard time with the concept. Noticing difficulty, the instructor creates another
learning tool to explain the topic another way. Which of the following BEST describes the skill the
instructor is using?
A. Create opportunities for learners to contribute to the discussion
B. Plan and use a variety of reinforcement techniques during training
C. Adapt learning methods as intended by the course designers
D. Enhance, substitute or create media as appropriate
Answer: D

CompTIA   TK0-201   certification TK0-201   TK0-201   TK0-201 examen   TK0-201

NO.12 An instructor has a class of learners who are required to attend. Most of the learners are not paying
attention or participating. Which of the following will increase the level of learner motivation?
A. Explain to the learners that the material is really interesting and they might want to pay attention.
B. Ask the learners if there is something more relevant they would prefer to learn.
C. Explain to the learners the skills they learn by taking this class could lead to career benefits.
D. Explain to the learners that they are only in class for a few days, and to make the best of it.
Answer: C

CompTIA   TK0-201   TK0-201 examen   TK0-201   TK0-201

NO.13 An instructor asks a question and a learner provides an incorrect answer that has nothing to do with the
question asked. Which of the following is the BEST response?
A. Ask another learner to provide an answer to the question.
B. Repeat the question exactly as originally stated.
C. Rephrase the question completely and ask it again.
D. Reprimand the learner for their response.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following describes a form of feedback with the GREATEST positive impact?
A. Suggestions that focus on procedures versus the concepts
B. Measurable results from summative assessments
C. Specific comments on errors with suggestions on how to improve
D. Comparing learner performance with other learners
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following would be on an evaluation when seeking feedback concerning courseware
material used during a class?
A. Design of the courseware materials
B. Accuracy of the courseware
C. Cost of the courseware
D. Instructor's use of the courseware
Answer: B

CompTIA   certification TK0-201   TK0-201   TK0-201

NO.16 While facilitating a class an instructor uses a variety of questioning techniques. Which of the following
BEST describes the benefits?
A. Challenges learners, involves them and helps to monitor their progress.
B. Establishes an environment that supports learning, and maintains focus on meeting stated learning
objectives
C. Facilitates group dynamics in a positive way, while encouraging respectful interactions.
D. Keeps the learners engaged as to what is coming next and conveys the importance of their knowledge.
Answer: A

CompTIA examen   TK0-201   TK0-201   TK0-201   TK0-201

NO.17 A contract instructor has been hired to teach a course with twelve learners. After surveying the learners
it is identified that half of the class is not familiar with the subject being taught. Which of the following
should the instructor do to help the entire class achieve success?
A. Contact the training manager for suggestions on how to proceed.
B. Teach to the more experienced learners; the others will catch up.
C. Make the six learners that already know the material wait until the other learners catch up
D. Cancel the class and then divide the class into two difference courses.
Answer: A

CompTIA   TK0-201   TK0-201   TK0-201   TK0-201

NO.18 An instructor asks an open-ended question to the class. Which of the following BEST describes the
skill the instructor is demonstrating?
A. Plan and use a variety of reinforcement techniques during training.
B. Elicit learner feedback on the adequacy of instructor responses.
C. Provide feedback that is specific to learners needs.
D. Create opportunities for learners to contribute to the discussion.
Answer: D

certification CompTIA   TK0-201   TK0-201   certification TK0-201

NO.19 An instructor is conducting a review of written instructions and is aware that the preferred learning
style of one of the learners is kinesthetic. Which of the following is the BEST choice for the instructor?
A. Adjust the delivery of the review to include more graphs and charts as part of the exercise.
B. Administer an exam to verify learner's knowledge of the material.
C. Deliver the curriculum as defined in the documentation so that the rest of the class does not fall behind.
D. Adjust the delivery of the review to include a demonstration as part of the exercise.
Answer: D

CompTIA   TK0-201 examen   TK0-201

NO.20 The Human Resources department is conducting a class for new employees when the air conditioning
stops working. Which of the following should the instructor do FIRST?
A. Report the incident to the maintenance department
B. Tell the employees it is not unbearable and continue with the course
C. Cancel the class and reschedule the class for another time.
D. Continue on with the instruction ignoring the temperature issue.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: PD1-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA PDI+ Beta Exam)
Questions et réponses: 861 Q&As

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NO.1 When is it advisable to dump the waste toner from a technicians service vacuum?
A.When it is full.
B.It is not recommended.
C.Before performing preventative maintenance.
D.After each call.
Answer: B

CompTIA   PD1-001 examen   PD1-001   PD1-001 examen

NO.2 Which of the following is a reason black toner is used in color printers?
A.It decreases the print speed in color laser printers.
B.It prevents moir patterns when printing color photographs.
C.It reduces the cost per page when printing gray scale documents.
D.It makes the color toner resistant to smudging when wet.
Answer: C

CompTIA   certification PD1-001   PD1-001 examen   certification PD1-001

NO.3 Which of the following stages in the laser print process attracts toner to the latent image on the
photoconductor?
A.Writing
B.Fusing
C.Development
D.Transfer
Answer: C

CompTIA   certification PD1-001   PD1-001

NO.4 How many CCDs are located in a single pass duplex ADF?
A.One
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following functions is associated with the developer unit?
A.Supplies toner to the photoconductor
B.Charges the surface of the photoconductor
C.Writes the latent image on the photoconductor
D.Cleans the photoconductor
Answer: A

CompTIA   PD1-001   PD1-001   PD1-001

NO.6 In which of the following sections of an MFP would a technician find a Xenon Lamp?
A.The paper feed section
B.The fuser section
C.The scanner section
D.The transfer section
Answer: C

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NO.7 During the photoconductor preparation step, residual charge can be removed by which of the
following? (Select TWO).
A.Pressure
B.Oil
C.Light
D.Gravity
E.Electrical Charge
Answer: CE

certification CompTIA   certification PD1-001   certification PD1-001

NO.8 A polygon mirror is part of which of the following assemblies?
A.Laser unit
B.Developer unit
C.Charge assembly
D.Fuser assembly
Answer: A

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NO.9 The customer has a dedicated ink jet fax machine that is used to send and receive faxes only from the
corporate office. The user complains of streaks on the received faxes while the internal self-prints are fine.
Which of the following should a technician recommend?
A.Clean the scanner glass on the distant machine.
B.Clean the scanner glass on the local machine.
C.Clean the printer head on the local machine.
D.Call the telephone company to increase the line signal level.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following utilities could be used to determine a subnet mask?
A.PING
B.NSLOOKUP
C.TRACERT
D.IPCONFIG
Answer: D

CompTIA   PD1-001   PD1-001   certification PD1-001

NO.11 An encoder sensor typically detects:
A.paper position.
B.shaft rotation.
C.magnetic flux.
D.laser beam strength.
Answer: B

CompTIA   PD1-001   PD1-001

NO.12 Which of the following would be the BEST process for the technician to follow when beginning to
diagnose a unit at a customers site?
A.Check the printers error log, and then inform the primary user what the issue is.
B.Go directly to the printer and investigate any issues that are found.
C.Investigate the printers status, then ask the primary user to write down what they think is wrong.
D.Gather information from the primary user, and then evaluate the printers condition.
Answer: D

CompTIA examen   PD1-001   PD1-001   PD1-001

NO.13 A technician is troubleshooting a network connectivity issue on a MFD and would like to eliminate the
possibility of another device on the network having the same IP address. The technician should:
A.disconnect the MFD and ping the IP address.
B.disconnect the MFD and ping the subnet mask.
C.disconnect the MFD and ping the loopback address.
D.run the ipconfig command from the command prompt.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following components is part of the ink dispersion system?
A.Print Heads
B.Cleaning heads
C.Pickup Roller
D.Charge Assembly
Answer: A

CompTIA   certification PD1-001   PD1-001   PD1-001 examen

NO.15 A customer has installed a new computer on their network. They can print to the printer but the option
for duplex printing is not available. All other computers have the option. Which of the following is the
cause of the problem?
A.The new computer is printing to the wrong IP address.
B.The new computer is using the wrong protocol.
C.The driver port is not setup correctly.
D.The option has not been selected on the driver.
Answer: D

CompTIA   certification PD1-001   PD1-001 examen

NO.16 The polygon mirror is located in which of the following components?
A.Developer unit
B.Scanner unit
C.Fuser unit
D.Laser unit
Answer: D

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NO.17 The proper safety guidelines for handling any device specific consumables can be found in which of
the following documentation?
A.Material Safety Data Sheets
B.Installation Guides
C.Consumer Reports
D.Devices Parts Catalog
Answer: A

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NO.18 Using the CMYK color model, the color purple is produced by combining cyan and which other color?
A.Green
B.Magenta
C.Yellow
D.Black
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following is the purpose of a torque limiter in a roller?
A.To reduce wear and tear on rollers.
B.To provide resistance but still allow some slippage.
C.To limit the amount of movement by media.
D.To make it easier to replace rollers.
Answer: B

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NO.20 A customer is concerned about excessive media jamming in their device. Which of the following is the
FIRST thing a technician should check?
A.Media feed rollers
B.Cassette drawers
C.Fusing section
D.Device log data
Answer: D

CompTIA   PD1-001   PD1-001   PD1-001

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Code d'Examen: EK0-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (E-Biz+)
Questions et réponses: 138 Q&As

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NO.1 .A new advantage to consumer at click-and-mortar stores is:
A. The ability to use multiple credit cards.
B. Overnight delivery.
C. The ability to return online purchases to brick-and-mortar stored.
D. Longer warrantee periods.
Answer: C

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NO.2 .Which of the following is not a lesson learned from e-tailing?
A. Maintaining marginal profits on each sale.
B. Make sure your website performs well.
C. Establish branding whenever possible.
D. Focus on market share.
Answer: D

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NO.3 .A Web site offers daily news content for free, but has banners at the top of each page.
What business model is being used?
A. Store A does not have a physical location and sells a variety of products online.
B. Store B does not have a physical location and sells a specific type of product.
C. Store C has a physical location and a Web site. A variety of products are sold.
D. Store D has a physical location. A variety of products are sold.
Answer: A

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NO.4 .What are three protocols that are part of the TCP/IP suite? (Choose three)
A. File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
B. NetBEUI Protocol.
C. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).
D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.5 .You E-Business site suffers from hacker attacks. You want to seek information on the
latest Internet security issues.
Which of the following organizations might provide you with the information?
A. Netscape
B. IANA
C. CERT
D. IEEE
Answer: C

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NO.6 .An example of a click and mortar alliance would be a partnership between a(n)
A. Established traditional retailer and a Web community.
B. Web community and a trade association.
C. E-Marketplace and an Application Service Provider.
D. On-line storefront and an Internet Service Provider.
Answer: A

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NO.7 .What does the term "banner blindness" refer to?
A. The growing trend of adding interactivity to banner advertisement to increase their visibility.
B. The anonymous tracking of banner impressions and browsing behaviors across multiple sites.
C. The refusal of companies to acknowledge banner advertising as a valuable advertising
medium.
D. The growing trend of visitors completely ignoring banner advertisements.
Answer: D

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NO.8 The Business Service Provider (BSP) is:
A. Internet service developers that rents only its own proprietary applications via the Web.
B. A company that offers packaged software for lease online.
C. A service provider that packages a selection of applications for distribution online.
D. A specialized company that connects customers with PCs and browsers to the Internet.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which one of the following best describes spamming?
A. Authorized sending of e-mail to business and people who have agreed to receive your
message.
B. Unauthorized receiving of e-mails by businesses and people who have not agreed to receive
your messages.
C. Mail that comes through the post office rather than electronic format.
D. Unauthorized sending of e-mails to businesses and people who have not agreed to receive
your messages.
Answer: D

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NO.10 .What are the three basic components of E-Business trigger-point planning? (Choose three)
A. Business case
B. Application structure
C. Prioritization blueprint
D. Application implementation
Answer: A, C, D

CompTIA   EK0-001   EK0-001

NO.11 .Which of the following is not a lesson learned from e-tailing?
A. Maintaining marginal profits on each sale.
B. Make sure your website performs well.
C. Establish branding whenever possible.
D. Focus on market share.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following is required for enabling SSL on the web server?
A. Shopping Cart Software
B. Digital Certificate
C. Internet Merchant Bank Account
D. Warehouse
E. Web hosting
Answer: B

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NO.13 What differentiates client/server applications from other types of
applications?
A. A telnet session to a web server.
B. Processing is divided between the requested and providing applications.
C. Reliance on relational database technology and dumb terminals.
D. Using a workstation to view remote data on a mainframe computer.
Answer: B

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NO.14 .What are three ways to increase consumer awareness of a Web site? (Choose three)
A. Have links on other Web sites.
B. Submit information about your Web site to search engines.
C. Advertise on traditional media.
D. Utilize a value-added network.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.15 .VPNsare most susceptible to what type of attacks?
A. Trojan
B. Sniffing
C. Man in the middle
D. Virus
E. DoS
Answer: C

CompTIA   EK0-001   EK0-001   EK0-001

NO.16 .Which of the following provides a single point of access to network resources in your
E-Business infrastructure for your business partners?
A. Tree
B. Browser
C. Domain
D. Directory service
Answer: D

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NO.17 .A collaborative Internet based network to link an enterprise with a specific group of its supplies
or customers is commonly referred to as a(n):
A. Internet
B. Extranet
C. CONet
D. Intranet
Answer: B

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NO.18 .Jenny has decided to make her online purchase of DVD movies from a particular retailer
because their site is easy to use and she can order quickly.
What decision criteria is she using?
A. Personal Service
B. Convenience
C. Value Proposition
D. Online Service
Answer: B

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NO.19 .Incremental planning based on short term milestones, which is often used in E-Business, is
called:
A. True return on investment.
B. Trigger-point planning.
C. Trig's event planning.
D. Solid contingency planning.
Answer: B

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NO.20 .In E-Business, which of the following is the most common element in determining the
pricing strategy for the business?
A. Business financial status
B. Overall business model
C. Product availability
D. Product delivery
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: FC0-TS1
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Strata IT for Sales )
Questions et réponses: 129 Q&As

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NO.1 Sam works as a Network Administrator for company.com. The company has forty Windows XP based
systems. Sam has been assigned a task to remove malware from the corrupted systems. Which of the
following will he remove to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
A. Hardware
B. Spyware
C. Trojan horses
D. Adware
Answer: D, B, and C

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NO.2 Which of the following organizations developed the hyper-threading technology?
A. Microsoft
B. Intel
C. Cisco
D. HP
Answer: B

CompTIA   FC0-TS1   FC0-TS1

NO.3 Which type of cleaning solution should be used on the exterior of computer components?
A. Alcohol
B. A glass cleaner
C. Soap and water
D. An antistatic spray
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are the various standards of SCSI?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. SCSI-2
B. SCSI-1
C. SCSI-0
D. SCSI-3
Answer: B, A, and D

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NO.5 Which of the following motherboards use 5-pin DIN keyboard connectors?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. ATA
B. XT
C. AT
D. ATX
Answer: B and C

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NO.6 Which of the following is the lightest but most expensive battery used in laptops?
A. Li-Ion
B. NiCad
C. NiMH
D. Sodium-Ion
Answer: A

CompTIA   FC0-TS1   FC0-TS1   FC0-TS1

NO.7 Which of the following statements about High-Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is capable of delivering the highest quality digital video and multi-channel digital audio on a single
cable.
B. It has two types of connectors: Type A and Type B.
C. It is a new I/O bus technology that has more bandwidth than PCI and AGP slots.
D. It is an interface primarily used to connect hard disk and CD drives in a computer.
Answer: B and A

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NO.8 Which of the following is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and provides
the ability to connect additional expansion cards to the computer?
A. Riser card
B. Secure Digital (SD) card
C. Communication and Networking Riser (CNR)
D. Audio/modem riser
Answer: A

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NO.9 In which of the following sizes are the ExpressCard modules available?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. ExpressCard/54
B. ExpressCard/34
C. ExpressCard/43
D. ExpressCard/45
Answer: B and A

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NO.10 Which of the following can occur if the power cable runs along with the computer network cable?
A. ESD
B. Broadcast storm
C. Surge
D. EMI
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is the other name for Firewire.?
A. IEEE 1395
B. IEEE 1394
C. IEEE 1396
D. IEEE 1397
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is the maximum limit on the amount of mercury in RoHS material?
A. 10 ppm
B. 1000 ppm
C. 1 ppm
D. 100 ppm
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following is the most common laptop battery found today?
A. NiCad
B. Lithium-Ion
C. NiMH
D. Energizer
Answer: B

CompTIA examen   FC0-TS1   FC0-TS1

NO.14 Which of the following devices is used to provide visual input that can be easily transferred over the
internet?
A. Solid-state drive
B. Webcam
C. Iomega Zip drive
D. Trackball
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is the other name of a palmtop?
A. PDA
B. Desktop
C. Laptop
D. Tablet
Answer: A

CompTIA   FC0-TS1   FC0-TS1   FC0-TS1

NO.16 What transfer rate is supported by the 72-pin SO-DIMM?
A. 32-bit
B. 8-bit
C. 64-bit
D. 16-bit
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following interfaces is the current standard for digital LCD monitors?
A. DVE
B. VGA
C. DVI
D. SVGA
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following ports support hot swapping?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Parallel
B. Serial
C. IEEE 1394
D. USB
Answer: D and C

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NO.19 What is the IEEE Standard for Ethernet?
A. IEEE 802.2
B. IEEE 802.4
C. IEEE 802.1
D. IEEE 802.3
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following are the types of disks or drives for CDs or DVDs?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Random Access Memory
B. Rewritable
C. Read Only Memory
D. Recordable
Answer: C, D, and B

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Code d'Examen: ISS-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (Intel Server Specialist Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 218 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following items are stored in the SDR s? (Select TWO).
A. BMC remote access settings
B. Part number information
C. BMC Operational Code
D. Fan speed control settings
E. Voltage sensor thresholds
Answer: D,E

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NO.2 When updating the HSC firmware, where is the flash chip that the new firmware is written to?
A. On the backplane
B. On the power distribution board
C. On the remote management module
D. On the mainboard
Answer: A

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NO.3 Why is it important to update the FRU when first building a system?
A. Updating the FRU enables the server administrator to remotely access the server.
B. Updating the FRU allows the server to configure the fan speed correctly.
C. Updating the FRU allows for the relevant part numbers to be programmed into NVRAM.
D. Updating the FRU makes sure the Management Engine is running the most recent firmware.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following items are features of IPMI, implemented on Intel Server Boards? (Select
THREE).
A. Built-in web server
B. Monitoring of fan speeds
C. Increased processor speed
D. System event log
E. Remote alerting via PET traps
F. Remote keyboard ,video, mouse, and media redirection
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.5 The Intel Server Board S5520UR has two different headers through which front panel signals can be
routed. Which of the following documents would a technician use to identify the headers used in a
particular chassis?
A. The Quick Start Guide
B. The Service Guide
C. The Technical Product Specification
D. The Spare Parts and Configuration Guide
Answer: B

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NO.6 Below is a step in the server management configuration process. Which of the following is true about
this command.?
A. This SYSCFG command, Reset Factory Settings, can be used to erase all BMC management settings.
This command can be used to reset the management settings to support reconfiguration of management,
without carrying over previous management settings.
B. This SYSCFG command, Refreshes Sensors, resets the sensor values and forces the BMC to rescan
all sensors to update the Sensor Data Records (SDR). This is used when a system error has been
resolved, but the status remains critical in the SDR.
C. This SYSCFG command, Restore File System, is used to restore a backup of the server management
settings. This is an efficient method of restoring the BMC settings if they have been lost or deleted.
D. This DOS command allows a super user to replace the file system within the BMC, reformatting the
data area down to a low-level format prior to a system restore.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following is MOST likely to cause a stop error on a 5520 Chipset based Server Board?
A. CMOS checksum error
B. PCI bus error
C. Single drive failure in a RAID 1 set
D. Memory ECC single bit error
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following documents and tools would a technician use to help determine the correct parts
necessary to build an Intel server? (Select TWO).
A. Quick Start Guide
B. Configuration Guide
C. Intel Server Configurator Tool (SCT)
D. Product Change Notification (PCN)
E. Technical Product Specification (TPS)
Answer: B,C

CompTIA   certification ISS-001   ISS-001 examen   ISS-001   ISS-001   ISS-001

NO.9 An Intel Server Board is integrated into
an Intel Server Chassis and uses the latest system update
package to bring the BIOS and firmware to the most up-to-date versions. After this process, an Intel
Server Specialist finds that the system fans still spin at full speed, even when the system is idle. Which of
the following is the MOST likely cause of this?
A. The memory DIMMs in the system do not have a thermal sensor.
B. The processor has reached the thermal throttling point.
C. One of the system fans is connected to the wrong header.
D. The chassis intrusion switch is malfunctioning.
Answer: C

CompTIA   ISS-001   certification ISS-001

NO.10 On an Intel Server Board S5520HC, which of the following is the MAXIMUM possible memory speed
that can be reached when the system is configured with 12 DIMMs and 2 Intel Xeon Processors
X5560?
A. 800 MHz
B. 1066 MHz
C. 1333 MHz
D. 1600 MHz
Answer: B

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NO.11 On an Intel Server Board S5520HC, which of the following is the MAXIMUM possible memory speed
that can be reached when the system is configured with 12 DIMMs and 2 Intel Xeon Processors
X5650?
A. 800 MHz
B. 1066 MHz
C. 1333MHz
D. 1600 MHz
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following RAID levels should an Intel Server Specialist recommend to a customer who
must have the highest reliability available, but only has room for four hard drives?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
Answer: C

CompTIA examen   ISS-001 examen   ISS-001   ISS-001 examen

NO.13 Which of the following RAID levels should an Intel Server Specialist recommend to a customer who
needs the highest write performance, but only has room for four hard drives?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
Answer: D

certification CompTIA   ISS-001   ISS-001   ISS-001

NO.14 When the server operating system is indicating a generic hardware problem, which of the following is
the BEST place to check for more information on what the root cause of the issue could be?
A. The EFI shell
B. The system BIOS
C. The operating system event log
D. The SEL
Answer: D

CompTIA   ISS-001 examen   ISS-001   certification ISS-001   ISS-001

NO.15 Most Intel servers support memory reliability features like ECC memory, memory scrubbing, mirroring,
and sparing. Which of the following features gives the HIGHEST level of memory reliability?
A. Spare channel mode
B. Mirrored channel mode
C. ECC memory
D. Patrol read/scrubbing
Answer: B

CompTIA   ISS-001   ISS-001

NO.16 Which of the following chassis are compatible with the Intel Server Board S5520UR? (Select TWO).
A. Intel Server Chassis SR1600
B. Intel Server Chassis SR1625
C. Intel Server Chassis SR1630
D. Intel Server Chassis SR1640
E. Intel Server Chassis SR1695
Answer: A,B

CompTIA   certification ISS-001   ISS-001   certification ISS-001

NO.17 A customer has asked an Intel Server Specialist to provide them with a 1U, 2-socket server. The
customer has concerns about power consumption.
Which of the following configurations would offer the MOST energy efficient solution?
A. Intel Server System SR1695WB
B. Intel Server System SR1630HGP
C. Intel Server System SR1600URLX
D. Intel Server System SR2625URBRP
Answer: A

certification CompTIA   certification ISS-001   ISS-001   ISS-001   ISS-001

NO.18 The Intel Server Board S5520UR has two different headers through which front panel signals can be
routed. Which of the following documents would a server technician use to identify the pinout of each
header?
A. The Technical Product Specification
B. The Service Guide
C. The Quick Start Guide
D. The Spare Parts and Configuration Guide
Answer: A

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NO.19 A customer calls and says that a server has suffered a stop error, and intermittently fails to boot. Which
of the following is the preferred FIRST step to take?
A. Connect to the SEL via the DPC CLI.
B. Ask the customer to return the server.
C. Ask the customer to reseat the memory.
D. Start a remote desktop session to the server.
E. Connect to the remote management module if present.
Answer: E

CompTIA   ISS-001   certification ISS-001   certification ISS-001   ISS-001   ISS-001

NO.20 A customer is designing a security appliance, and has asked an Intel Server Specialist to supply them
with a 1-socket rack mount server with as many Gigabit Ethernet ports as possible.
Which of the following configurations would be the MOST appropriate to recommend?
A. Intel Server System SR1695GPRX, with Intel Quad Port Gigabit I/O module, and an Intel Gigabit
ET2 Server Adapter.
B. Intel Server System SR1630GP, with an Intel Quad Port Gigabit I/O module.
C. Intel Modular Server System, with additional Gigabit Ethernet mezzanine cards.
D. Intel Server System SR1625UR, with Intel Quad Port Gigabit I/O module, and an Intel PRO/1000
PT Server Adapter.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: JK0-019
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 637 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following TCP/IP and OSI model layers retransmits a TCP packet if it is not received
successfully at its destination?
A. The transport OSI model layer and the transport TCP/IP model layer
B. The transport OSI model layer and the Internet TCP/IP model layer
C. The network OSI model layer and the transport TCP/IP model layer
D. The network OSI model layer and the Internet TCP/IP model layer
Answer: A

CompTIA   JK0-019   JK0-019   certification JK0-019   certification JK0-019   JK0-019

NO.2 Sandy, a network administrator, wants to be able to block all already known malicious activity.
Which of the following would allow her to perform this activity.?
A. Behavioral Based IDS
B. Signature Based IDS
C. Behavioral Based IPS
D. Signature Based IPS
Answer: D

CompTIA   JK0-019   JK0-019   certification JK0-019   JK0-019   JK0-019 examen

NO.3 The location that the local network connection ends and the ISP responsibility begins is known as the:
A. Access point.
B. Default gateway.
C. IDF connection.
D. Demarcation point.
Answer: D

CompTIA   JK0-019   certification JK0-019

NO.4 Which of the following network scanners detects and sends out alerts for malicious network activity?
A. Packet sniffers
B. IDS
C. Port scanners
D. IPS
Answer: B

certification CompTIA   JK0-019   JK0-019

NO.5 Joe, a network technician, is tasked with installing a router and firewall to get an office working with
Internet access.
Which of the following features MUST be configured to allow sharing of a single public IP address?
A. QoS
B. POP3
C. PAT
D. SMTP
Answer: C

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NO.6 A company has only three laptops that connect to their wireless network. The company is currently
using WEP encryption on their wireless network. They have noticed unauthorized connections on their
WAP and want to secure their wireless connection to prevent this.
Which of the following security measures would BEST secure their wireless network? (Select TWO).
A. Change the encryption method to WPA
B. Limit the DHCP scope to only have three addresses total
C. Enable the SSID broadcast
D. Enable and configure MAC filtering
E. Change the broadcast channel to a less commonly used channel
Answer: A,D

CompTIA   JK0-019 examen   JK0-019

NO.7 Which of the following network appliances would facilitate an even amount of traffic hitting each web
server?
A. Load balancer
B. VPN concentrator
C. Proxy server
D. Content filter
Answer: A

certification CompTIA   JK0-019   JK0-019

NO.8 Which of the following connector types would Sandy, a network technician, use to connect a serial
cable?
A. RJ-11
B. BNC
C. LC
D. DB-9
Answer: D

CompTIA   JK0-019   JK0-019 examen

NO.9 Two duplicate pieces of equipment can be used in conjunction for which of the following purposes?
(Select TWO)
A. High availability
B. Fault tolerance
C. Reduce latency
D. Wi-MAX
E. CARP
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 Which of the following network topologies, when a single machine's cable breaks, would only affect one
network device and not the rest of the network?
A. Bus
B. Peer-to-peer
C. Ring
D. Star
Answer: D

CompTIA   JK0-019   JK0-019   JK0-019

NO.11 Sandy, a technician, wants to limit access to a wireless network to company owned laptops, but does
not want to use an encryption method. Which of the following methods would be BEST to accomplish
this?
A. MAC filtering
B. SSL VPN
C. PPPoE
D. WPA Enterprise
Answer: A

certification CompTIA   JK0-019 examen   JK0-019

NO.12 Which of the following is a form of encrypting packets for safe, secure data transmission within a
network?
A. RAS
B. PPTP
C. IPSec
D. ICA
Answer: C

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NO.13 Joe, a user, is unable to reach websites, but is able to ping several Internet IPv4 addresses. Which of
the following is the MOST likely problem?
A. Incorrect subnet mask
B. Incorrect DNS
C. Missing default gateway
D. Incorrect IPv6 address
Answer: B

CompTIA examen   JK0-019   JK0-019

NO.14 Joe, a technician, is configuring ports on a switch. He turns off auto-negotiation and sets the port
speed to 1000 Mbps. A user s PC is no longer able to access the network.
Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?
A. The user s NIC does not support 1Gbps
B. The switch is not compatible with 1000Mbps.
C. The user's NIC does not support 100Mbps.
D. Joe needs to restart the DNS server.
Answer: A

CompTIA   JK0-019   certification JK0-019

NO.15 Which of the following is an example of two-factor authentication?
A. A username and PIN
B. A username and password
C. A username, password, finger print scan, and smart card
D. A username, password, and key fob number
Answer: D

CompTIA examen   JK0-019   certification JK0-019   JK0-019   JK0-019 examen

NO.16 Which of the following sizes is the fixed cell length in ATM?
A. 8 bytes
B. 53 bytes
C. 64 kilobytes
D. 128 kilobytes
Answer: B

CompTIA   certification JK0-019   JK0-019   certification JK0-019

NO.17 Sandy, the network administrator, has funding to do a major upgrade of the company s LAN. This
upgrade is currently in the planning stage, and Sandy still needs to determine the network requirements,
bottlenecks, and any future upgrades in mind. Which of the following is the FIRST step in the planning
process?
A. Conduct a vulnerability scan
B. Establish a network baseline
C. Conduct traffic analysis
D. Conduct a risk assessment
Answer: B

CompTIA examen   JK0-019   JK0-019

NO.18 Sandy, a technician, installs a new WAP and users are able to connect; however, users cannot access
the Internet. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. The signal strength has been degraded and latency is increasing hop count.
B. An incorrect subnet mask has been entered in the WAP configuration.
C. The signal strength has been degraded and packets are being lost.
D. Users have specified the wrong encryption type and routes are being rejected.
Answer: B

CompTIA   JK0-019   JK0-019   JK0-019   JK0-019 examen   JK0-019

NO.19 Which of the following should Joe, a technician, do FIRST when setting up a SOHO network?
A. Set up an account with an Internet service provider.
B. Create a list of requirements and constraints.
C. Arrange a domain name with a suitable registrar.
D. Choose the correct operating system version.
Answer: B

certification CompTIA   JK0-019   JK0-019 examen

NO.20 Which of the following would Joe, a technician, configure to modify the time a device will hold an IP
address provided through DHCP?
A. DNS suffixes
B. Leases
C. Static IP addressing
D. Reservations
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: BI0-122
Nom d'Examen: COGNOS (Cognos 8 BI Administrator v2)
Questions et réponses: 45 Q&As

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NO.1 What can an administrator create to ensure that multiple users do not have to enter database
credentials when they run reports?
A.Signon
B.Single signon
C.Collation sequence
D.Connection sequence
Answer:A

COGNOS   certification BI0-122   BI0-122   BI0-122 examen   BI0-122   BI0-122 examen

NO.2 From within Cognos Connection, what must an administrator deploy to move an entire Cognos 8
application into a new and empty environment?
A.Content store
B.Public Folders
C.Cognos namespace
D.Content manager
Answer:A

COGNOS examen   BI0-122   BI0-122

NO.3 When an administrator exports entries from Cognos 8, what file gets created?
A.Content store file
B.Object extract file
C.Deployment archive file
D.Configuration export file
Answer:C

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NO.4 The Report Upgrade task in Cognos Connection provides options for upgrading report
specifications. Which of the following is one option?
A.By folder
B.By role
C.By group
D.By namespace
Answer:A

certification COGNOS   certification BI0-122   BI0-122   BI0-122

NO.5 An administrator wants to show the folder hierarchy of Cognos Connection in a portlet. Which
portlet must the administrator use?
A.Cognos Viewer
B.Cognos Search
C.Cognos Navigator
D.Cognos Extended Applications
Answer:C

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Code d'Examen: 1D0-525
Nom d'Examen: CIW (CIW v5 E-Commeroe Designer)
Questions et réponses: 144 Q&As

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NO.1 Nain is a front-desk receptionist at a large corporation. After a recent payday for the employees, Nain
received a phone call from someone claiming to be an employee who was out-of-state on an assignment.
This person asked Nain whether his check had been deposited, and to verify that the check was written to
a specific account name and bank routing number. This occurrence may be a type of attack known as a:
A. phishing attack.
B. pharming attack.
C. denial-of-service attack.
D. social-engineering attack.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Paul conducts business in a country that levies a value-added tax (VAT) on all goods purchased within
its borders. What must Paul configure in order to add a VAT automatically to the total cost of a purchase?
A. The shopping cart
B. The payment gateway
C. The inventory database
D. The purchasing database
Answer: A

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NO.3 Before you can conduct usability testing, you should:
A. identify your potential customers.
B. identify browser compatibility issues.
C. publish your site to a production server.
D. identify the most-traveled path of your site.
Answer: A

CIW   1D0-525 examen   certification 1D0-525

NO.4 Which of the following is the most effective strategy for conducting an opt-in e-mail marketing
campaign?
A. Send e-mail messages once a day to initial contacts for the first two weeks.
B. Send e-mail messages once every two weeks to follow up on an initial contact.
C. Create an executable Java application as an e-mail attachment that describes the company.
D. Create an executable ActiveX application as an e-mail attachment that describes the company.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following describes a Sharable Content Object Reference Model (SCORM) manifest?
A. An XHTML document that is SCORM-conformant
B. An XML document that describes a Sharable Content Object (SCO)
C. A relational database that contains Sharable Content Object (SCO) information
D. A style sheet that gives structure to the page containing a Sharable Content Object (SCO)
Answer: B

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NO.6 You will be hiring someone to localize your e-commerce site in order to reach a specific audience.
Which of the following is most essential for the person you hire to effectively complete the job?
A. The ability to communicate clearly with the team that created the site
B. An understanding of the scripting language and database type used on the site
C. An understanding of the language and culture of the audience you want to reach
D. An understanding of the importance of the just-in-time (JIT) process to the company
Answer: C

CIW   1D0-525 examen   1D0-525   1D0-525

NO.7 Under Secure Electronic Transactions (SET), which three parties involved in a transaction are required
to use the SET protocol?
A. The merchant, the bank, the customer
B. The wholesaler, the merchant, the bank
C. The broker, the merchant, the customer
D. The customer, the credit card company, the bank
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are considering payment methods for a business-to-business (B2B) e-commerce site. Which
payment method would be most appropriate for your needs?
A. Cash on delivery (c.o.d.)
B. Purchase order and post-purchase billing
C. Purchase request and pre-purchase billing
D. Advance payment using check or money order
Answer: B

CIW   1D0-525 examen   1D0-525   1D0-525 examen

NO.9 What is the name of the electronic funds transfer (EFT) system governed by the United States and
designed to provide the clearing of electronic payments between banks?
A. The National Clearing House (NCH) network
B. The Automated Clearing House (ACH) network
C. The Receiving Depository Financial Institution (RDFI)
D. The Originating Depository Financial Institution (ODFI)
Answer: B

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NO.10 Online credit-card transactions require a payment gateway. Payment gateway software can be
installed on your Web server or hosted online. After you install a payment gateway, you must:
A. develop an effective marketing strategy.
B. install the e-commerce database system.
C. select and establish a compatible merchant account.
D. configure the gateway to work with your e-commerce server.
Answer: D

CIW   1D0-525   1D0-525   1D0-525 examen   1D0-525

NO.11 What security protocol typically allows Web-based applications to pass data securely by providing an
encrypted channel?
A. SET
B. SSH
C. SSL
D. HTTP
Answer: C

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NO.12 The main purpose of monitoring e-commerce Web server resources and performance (including
bandwidth, uptime, downtime and network usage) is to ensure:
A. site availability.
B. visitor satisfaction.
C. cost-effectiveness.
D. increased profitability.
Answer: A

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NO.13 You have just developed a business-to-consumer (B2C) Web site that sells wetsuits for scuba diving.
You want to partner with another company to start a banner ad program. What sort of company would be
the most effective choice for a partner?
A. A company that sells canoes and small boats
B. A company that sells wetsuits mainly to surfers
C. A company that sells tanks, masks and snorkels
D. A company that sells a different brand of wetsuits
Answer: C

CIW   1D0-525   certification 1D0-525   certification 1D0-525

NO.14 Which of the following is a common cause of a buffer overflow?
A. Unchecked data entered into the buffer
B. Unnecessary services running in the buffer
C. Repeated attempts to guess a password stored in the buffer
D. Unexpected SQL statements causing database information to be revealed in the buffer
Answer: A

CIW   1D0-525   1D0-525   certification 1D0-525

NO.15 Which of the following site creation models would be most appropriate for a site needing customer
relationship management (CRM) and personalization?
A. Online instant storefront
B. Mid-level online instant storefront
C. Mid-level offline instant storefront
D. High-level offline instant storefront
Answer: D

certification CIW   1D0-525   1D0-525

NO.16 Which of the following describes a referrer program?
A. One site pays another site for the traffic it sends; traffic is directed in one direction.
B. One site pays several sites for traffic it sends; traffic is generated in multiple directions.
C. A third party verifies referrals from one site to another site as traffic flows from one to the other.
D. Referrals occur only after a company pays a commission for them; traffic is directed in one direction.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following can help customers complete purchases more quickly?
A. A well-planned site hierarchy
B. Detailed descriptions of products
C. Product testimonials from other customers
D. An RSS feed directing customers to a site blog
Answer: A

CIW examen   1D0-525   1D0-525   1D0-525

NO.18 You are transitioning from a traditional "brick-and-mortar?storefront that accepts credit cards to a new
e-commerce storefront. Which payment method would be most appropriate during the transition?
A. Cash on delivery (c.o.d.)
B. Open Buying on the Internet (OBI)
C. Credit card with offline processing
D. Advance payment using check or money order
Answer: C

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NO.19 An online instant storefront can build community by:
A. granting quantity discounts.
B. creating an e-mail newsletter.
C. using banner exchange programs.
D. providing a public listing of customer e-mail addresses.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following pieces of information will best help you determine the number of transactions
your database server can accommodate?
A. Maximum uptime requirements
B. Minimum installation requirements
C. The number of database tables required
D. The number of concurrent user connections
Answer: D

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