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Code d'Examen: L50-502
Nom d'Examen: LSI (LSI SVM5 Solutions Architect)
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer is using SVM to provide five volumes to a Windows 2008 server. These volumes have
been converted to dynamic disks and striped using the OS. Which consideration should be met if the
customer would like to use PiTs and views to access this data from another server?
A. The data cannot be accessed from another host.
B. multiMigrate should be used to migrate the data to a single volume.
C. A consistency group should be defined for the five volumes.
D. The standard agent must be used to access the view.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Your customer would like to consolidate multiple storage arrays which are currently under-utilized. The
SAN is not currently managed by SVM. The customer desires the minimal impact to their applications.
Which two statements describe the process to consolidate the arrays under SVM? (Choose two.)
A. Import existing LUNs into SVM pools.
B. Use multiMigrate to move the volumes to the desired array.
C. Use asynchronous mirror to move the volumes to the desired array.
D. Use multiMigrate to move the volumes to the desired array and remove SVM.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 A retailer with a SQL database must pull statistics from a production database but would like to do so
without interfering with production work. The statistics are required by three different departments. Which
two methods could be used to do this? (Choose two.)
A. Use multiMigrate on the database volume with one job and assign the destination volume to the three
hosts.
B. Use multiMirror asynchronous on the database volume with three jobs and assign the jobs to the three
hosts.
C. Use multiView on the database volume to create a PiT; create three views for that PiT and assign it to
the three hosts.
D. Use multiCopy on the database volume with three jobs and assign each destination volume to the
three hosts.
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 Which storage arrays can be migrated under SVM 5 control.?
A. SAS storage array
B. iSCSI storage array
C. FC storage array
D. Infiniband storage array
Answer: C

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NO.5 Your customer has recently begun using hourly PiTs for rapid application recovery. The desire is to
implement a data retention plan where each hourly PiT is kept on disk until 8:00 PM. Four weeks?worth
the customer would like to keep a daily snapshot copy of the data for seven days. Also the customer
wants to keep four weeks worth of weekly views on a secondary, low cost array. The solution should
minimize disk utilization on the primary array. Which three tasks would you implement to accomplish this
goal? (Choose three.)
A. Create a multiCopy of the application data and keep seven copies.
B. Create a View on the most recent PiT each night at 8:00 PM and retain for seven days.
C. Create a multiCopy of the Sunday View to the second array and keep four copies.
D. Purge PiTs on the source volume at 8:00 PM to keep seven PiTs.
E. Use multiMigrate to move the Sunday View to the second array and keep four copies.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.6 Your customer is looking for a high availability solution for company-critical data with an RPO of 0.
Periodically the customer would like to verify the integrity of replicated data. You configure two SVM
domains on two sites and use synchronous multiMirror between the two sites. What are two methods to
verify the data? (Choose two.)
A. Create a PiT on the synchronous multiMirror group, create a view on the second synchronous mirror
job PiT and assign it to a host.
B. Use multiCopy for one of the synchronous multiMirror jobs and then assign the destination volume to a
host.
C. Create a PiT on the second synchronous multiMirror job, create a view for that PiT and assign it to a
host.
D. Create a PiT on the first synchronous multiMirror job, create a view for that PiT and assign it to a host.
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 You have a disaster recovery scenario where newly created SVM Views will be presented to an ESX
server or ESX cluster at a secondary site. To avoid importing the views as new volumes, which ESX
advanced setting should be enabled?
A. port retry
B. resignature
C. device reset
D. LUN reset
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer has an AIX high availability cluster multiprocessing (HACMP) environment and would like to
use SVM to provide additional storage to the cluster. Which consideration must be met to access the new
volumes?
A. The AIX light agent must be installed on all nodes.
B. The new volumes must be imported into a volume group.
C. The LSI failover driver must be installed on all nodes.
D. The MPIO driver must be disabled on all nodes.
Answer: A

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NO.9 A customer has an environment that includes existing VMware disks that must be imported into SVM.
VMware marks a signature on the volumes which identifies the controller WWNN and LUN ID. Which
statement describes what you need to take into account when migrating the VMware disks under SVM
control?
A. VMware will not resignature automatically.
B. VMware will present the same LUN ID after importing.
C. VMware will modify the DPM WWNN to match the array WWNN.
D. VMware resignaturing must be set correctly.
Answer: D

LSI examen   L50-502   L50-502

NO.10 You are implementing zoning for an SVM 5 environment. Which rule should you observe when zoning
servers with DPMs?
A. There should be no more than four paths per DPM to any one server.
B. There should be no more than two paths per DPM to any one server.
C. All servers and DPM front-end ports should reside in the same zone.
D. The servers should be zoned directly with the storage controllers.
Answer: B

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NO.11 A customer would like to implement SVM into their current storage environment and has asked you to
provide a detailed overview of both the SVM and DPM architectures. Where would you suggest that they
locate the required information?
A. Host Compatibility Matrix
B. Deployment Guide for SVM 4
C. SVM User Guide
D. Configuration Knowledge Base for SVM 5
Answer: C

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NO.12 You are trying to determine the optimal solution to meet the data recovery needs of a customer. What
will provide your customer with the smallest recovery time objective and array failure protection?
A. asynchronous multiMirror
B. multiView
C. multiCopy
D. synchronous multiMirror
Answer: D

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NO.13 Your customer wants to run backups at any time of the day, using snapshots of production data, leaving
production systems fully online and available during backups. Which SVM application would be used to
achieve their online backup requirement?
A. multiMigrate
B. multiMirror
C. multiView
D. SVM volume management
Answer: C

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NO.14 You are deploying ESX servers with SVM. You have followed the recommended best practice and
have designed your front-end SAN to have redundant fabrics and allowed for both HBA initiator ports to
see both DPMs. You have created SVM volumes and have presented them to your ESX servers. After
performing an HBA rescan from an ESX server, how many paths should be available to each LUN?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: B

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NO.15 A financial institution has an Oracle application that is critical to its business. Which three factors will
enable you to assess how to provide high availability and recovery? (Choose three.)
A. application recovery time objective
B. application recovery point objective
C. distance between data centers
D. number of network adapters
E. distance between servers
Answer: A,B,C

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Code d'Examen: GPEN
Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Certified Penetration Tester)
Questions et réponses: 384 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements are true about KisMAC?
A. Data generated by KisMAC can also be saved in pcap format.
B. It cracks WEP and WPA keys by Rainbow attack or by dictionary attack.
C. It scans for networks passively on supported cards.
D. It is a wireless network discovery tool for Mac OS X.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 Which of the following options holds the strongest password?
A. california
B. $#164aviD

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Code d'Examen: G2700
Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Certified ISO-2700 Specialist Practice Test)
Questions et réponses: 453 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is the designing phase of the ISMS?
A. Check
B. Plan
C. Act
D. Do
Answer: B

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NO.2 A project plan includes the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) and cost estimates. Which of the following
are the parts of a project plan?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Risk identification
B. Security Threat
C. Project schedule
D. Team members list
E. Risk analysis
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.3 Mark works as an Office Assistant for uCertify Inc. He is responsible for managing office documents.
Today, after opening a word document, Mark noticed that the other opened documents are closed
suddenly. After reopening those documents, Mark found some modifications in the documents. He
contacted his Security Administrator and came to know that there is a virus program installed in the
operating system. Which of the following types of virus has attacked the operating system?
A. Data file
B. Macro
C. Polymorphic
D. Boot sector
Answer: A

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NO.4 Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) represents an organization's loss from a single threat. Which of the
following formulas best describes the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)?
A. SLE = Asset Value (AV) * Exposure Factor (EF)
B. SLE = Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) * Exposure Factor (EF)
C. SLE = Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) * Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
D. SLE = Asset Value (AV) * Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
Answer: A

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NO.5 The disciplined and structured process, that integrates information security and risk management
activities into the System Development Life Cycle, is provided by the risk management framework.
Choose the appropriate RMF steps.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following is used for secure financial transactions over the Internet?
A. ATM
B. VPN
C. SSL
D. SET
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following phases of the PDCA model is the monitoring and controlling phase of the
Information Security Management System (ISMS)?
A. Check
B. Plan
C. Do
D. Act
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following is a fast-emerging global sector that advises individuals and corporations on
how to apply the highest ethical standards to every aspect of their business?
A. Service Capacity Management (SCM)
B. Business Capacity Management (BCM)
C. Resource Capacity Management (RCM)
D. Integrity Management Consulting
Answer: D

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NO.9 Mark works as a Network Security Administrator for uCertify Inc. An employee of the organization
comes to Mark and tells him that a few months ago, the employee had filled an online bank form due to
some account related work. Today, when again visiting the site, the employee finds that some of his
personal information is still being displayed in the webpage. Which of the following types of cookies
should be disabled by Mark to resolve the issue?
A. Session
B. Temporary
C. Secure
D. Persistent
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following statements are true about security risks?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. These are considered as an indicator of threats coupled with vulnerability.
B. These can be removed completely by taking proper actions.
C. These can be mitigated by reviewing and taking responsible actions based on possible risks.
D. These can be analyzed and measured by the risk analysis process.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.11 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase.
_________accord describes the minimum regulatory capital to be allocated by each bank based on its
risk profile of assets.
Answer: Basel ll

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NO.12 Which of the following are the uses of cryptography as defined in a policy document?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Backup
B. Control of keys
C. Applications supporting cryptography
D. Recovery
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.13 Mark works as a System Administrator for uCertify Inc. He is responsible for securing the network of
the organization. He is configuring some of the advanced features of the Windows firewall so that he can
block the client machine from responding to pings. Which of the following advanced setting types should
Mark change for accomplishing the task?
A. ICMP
B. SNMP
C. UDP
D. SMTP
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following administrative policy controls is usually associated with government
classifications of materials and the clearances of individuals to access those materials?
A. Separation of Duties
B. Due Care
C. Acceptable Use
D. Need to Know
Answer: D

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NO.15 You work as a Security Administrator for uCertify Inc. You have been assigned the task to verify the
identity of the employees recruited in your organization. Which of the following components of security
deals with an employee's verification in the organization?
A. Network Security
B. Physical security
C. Access security
D. Human resource security
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following controls are administrative in nature?
A. Directive controls
B. Recovery controls
C. Preventive controls
D. Detective controls
Answer: A

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NO.17 You work as the Human Resource Manager for uCertify Inc. You need to recruit some candidates for
the marketing department of the organization. Which of the following should be defined to the new
employees of the organization before they have joined?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Marketing tips and tricks
B. Organization's network topology
C. Job roles
D. Organization's security policy
Answer: C,D

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NO.18 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. The organization has constructed a cafeteria for
their employees and you are responsible to select the access control method for the cafeteria.
There are a few conditions for giving access to the employees, which are as follows:
1. Top level management can get access any time.
2. Staff members can get access during the specified hours.
3. Guests can get access only in working hours.
Which of the following access control methods is suitable to accomplish the task?
A. Discretionary access control
B. Lattice-based access control
C. Attribute-based access control
D. Rule-based access control
Answer: D

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NO.19 Mark works as a Network Security Administrator for uCertify Inc. He has been assigned the task of
installing a MySQL server. Mark wants to monitor only the data that is directed to or originating from the
server and he also wants to monitor running processes, file system access and integrity, and user logins
for identifying malicious activities. Which of the following intrusion detection techniques will Mark use to
accomplish the task?
A. Network-based IDS
B. Signature-based IDS
C. Anomaly-based IDS
D. Host-based IDS
Answer: D

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NO.20 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term.
________ is a powerful and low-interaction open source honeypot.
Answer: Honeyd

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NO.21 Which of the following are the basics of Business Continuity Management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Implementation of a risk assessment technique to identify the causes and consequences of failures
B. Regular checking of business continuity plans
C. Identification of authentication techniques according to the requirements
D. Identification of human resources according to the requirements
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.22 Which of the following should be considered while calculating the costs of the outage?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Sales aspect of the business
B. Cost of low productivity
C. Innovations in electronic funds transfer
D. Cost of lost income from missed sales
Answer: B,D

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NO.23 You work as an Information Security Manager for uCertify Inc. You need to make the
documentation on change management. What are the advantages of change management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Improved productivity of users due to more stable and better IT services
B. Improved IT personnel productivity, since there is a reduced number of urgent changes and a back-out
of erroneous changes
C. Improved adverse impact of changes on the quality of IT services
D. Increased ability to absorb frequent changes without making an unstable IT environment
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.24 Which of the following are the exceptions of the Data Protection Act?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Section 36 - Domestic purposes
B. Section 28 - National security
C. Section 55 - Unlawful obtaining of personal data
D. Section 29 - Crime and taxation
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.25 Rick works as a Computer Forensic Investigator for BlueWells Inc. He has been informed that some
confidential information is being leaked out by an employee of the company. Rick suspects that someone
is sending the information through email. He checks the emails sent by some employees to other
networks. Rick finds out that Sam, an employee of the Sales department, is continuously sending text files
that contain special symbols, graphics, and signs. Rick suspects that Sam is using the Steganography
technique to send data in a disguised form. Which of the following techniques is Sam using?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Linguistic steganography
B. Text Semagrams
C. Technical steganography
D. Perceptual masking
Answer: A,B

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NO.26 Qualitative risk analysis includes judgment, intuition, and experience. Which of the following methods
are used to perform qualitative risk analysis?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Egress filtering
B. Checklists
C. Delphi technique
D. Brainstorming
Answer: B,C,D

GIAC   G2700 examen   G2700   G2700

NO.27 You work as an Information Security Manager for uCertify Inc. You are working on the
documentation of control A.10.1.1. What is the purpose of control A.10.1.1.?
A. It is concerned with the documentation of the human resource security to make recruitments clear to
the organization.
B. It is concerned with the documentation of the supply chain management.
C. It is concerned with the documentation of operating procedures to ensure the correct and secure use of
information processing facilities.
D. It is concerned with the documentation of the disaster recovery management to ensure proper backup
technologies.
Answer: C

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NO.28 Which of the following is a Restrict Anonymous registry value that allows users with explicit
anonymous permissions?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 1
D. 0
Answer: A

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NO.29 You work as an Information Security Manager for uCertify Inc. You are working on communication and
organization management. You need to create the documentation on change management.
Which of the following are the main objectives of change management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Minimal disruption of services
B. Reduction of inventory in accordance with revenue
C. Economic utilization of resources involved in the change
D. Reduction in back-out activities
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.30 You work as an Information Security Officer for uCertify Inc. You need to create an asset management
plan differentiating fixed assets from inventory items. How will you differentiate assets from inventory
items?
A. Inventory items are sold.
B. Assets are temporary usually.
C. Inventory items are permanent.
D. Assets cannot be used.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: ACMP_6.1
Nom d'Examen: Aruba (Aruba Certified Mobility Professional 6.1)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 What do you need to generate a feature license key for an Aruba controller?
A. controller's MAC address and the feature description
B. controller's MAC address and the certificate number
C. controller's Serial Number and the feature description
D. controller's Serial Number and the certificate number
Answer: D

Aruba examen   ACMP_6.1   ACMP_6.1   ACMP_6.1

NO.2 What are the PEF-NG license limits based on?
A. Number of APs
B. Limit One per controller
C. Number of users
D. Number of local controllers
Answer: A

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NO.3 An Aruba based network has a Master and three local controllers. No APs terminate on the Master
controller. IDS is desired, so the administrator wants to install the "RFProtect license."
On which controller should the license be installed?
A. master controller since it performs the IDS analysis
B. the local controllers since the APs terminate there
C. all of the controllers
D. this isn't the correct license for this purpose
Answer: C

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NO.4 What new firewall action was added specifically for use with Aruba's Content Security Service?
VisualRF supports import of floor plans from:
A. dst-nat
B. dual-nat
C. route dst-nat
D. redirect to tunnel
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the maximum number of campus APs supported by a 620 controller?
A. 32
B. 8
C. 16
D. 24
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following controllers has an integrated single radio AP.?
A. 3200
B. 620
C. 650
D. 651
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which Aruba controllers are able to provide IEEE 802.3af POE? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. 3200
B. 620
C. 650
D. 6000
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.8 When a user first associates to the WLAN, what role are they given?
A. the guest role
B. the stateful role
C. the initial role in the server group profile
D. the initial role in the AAA profile
Answer: D

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NO.9 In all unmodified default AAA profiles, in which default initial role is the user placed?
A. trusted-ap
B. guest
C. pre-guest
D. logon
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is the best practice regarding licensing for a backup master to support Master Redundancy?
A. Backup master only requires the AP license
B. License limits should be the same on primary master and backup Master
C. Licenses are pushed from the primary to the backup Master along with the configuration
D. Backup Master does not require licenses to support master redundancy
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following APs do not support dual radio operations? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. RAP - 5
B. AP 125
C. AP 120
D. AP 124
Answer: A,C

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NO.12 Which of the following licenses are consumed by RAP?
A. AP license
B. PEF-NG license
C. PEF-V license
D. No license required
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following APs support remote AP operation?
A. AP 105
B. AP 125
C. RAP2
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.14 The permanent licenses on the controller will be deleted with the use of which command?
A. delete license
B. write erase
C. Licenses cannot be deleted once activated
D. write erase all
Answer: D

Aruba   ACMP_6.1   ACMP_6.1   ACMP_6.1   ACMP_6.1   ACMP_6.1

NO.15 When are the system-defined default roles added to the configuration on the controller?
A. when the controller is first booted
B. when an RF Proctect license is added to the controller
C. when created manually
D. when a PEF-NG license is added to the controller
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which statement is true about the Content Security License?
A. Applied to the master controller
B. Applied to all the controllers in the network
C. It is based on number of users
D. It is based on number of APs
Answer: C

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NO.17 When creating a firewall policy, which of the following parameters are required? (Choose all the correct
answers.)
A. Destination
B. Service
C. Source
D. Log
E. Action
Answer: A,B,C,E

Aruba   ACMP_6.1   ACMP_6.1   ACMP_6.1 examen

NO.18 Which may be applied directly to an interface? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. Access List (ACL)
B. Firewall Policy
C. Roles
D. RF Plan Map
Answer: A,B

Aruba   ACMP_6.1   ACMP_6.1 examen   ACMP_6.1   ACMP_6.1   ACMP_6.1

NO.19 Which access point models support concurrent operations in both the b/g
band as well as the a
band?
(Choose all the correct answers.)
A. RAP2
B. AP-120
C. AP-105
D. AP-125
E. AP-135
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.20 Which of the following could be used to set a user's post-authentication role or VLAN association?
(Choose all the correct answers.)
A. AAA default role for authentication method
B. Server Derivation Rule
C. Vendor Specific Attributes
D. AP Derivation Rule
Answer: B,C

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Code d'Examen: ACMA_6.1
Nom d'Examen: Aruba (Aruba Certified Mobility Associate 6.1)
Questions et réponses: 72 Q&As

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NO.1 What are some best practices when configuring the Aruba Firewall (Select two)?:
A. Use aliases when possible
B. Write rules from least specific to most specific
C. Take actions like blacklisting when users violate policies
D. Create a different policy for each unique rule
E. Create different policies for access to different servers
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Firewall policy should be written from:
A. Least specific to most specific
B. Most specific to least specific
C. Most important resources first
D. Order is not important
E. Policies with the most rules 1st
Answer: B

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NO.3 Aruba's recommended best option for authenticating guest users is:
A. Temporary employee account
B. Kerberos
C. Captive Portal
D. Windows logon
E. Email address
Answer: C

Aruba examen   ACMA_6.1   ACMA_6.1   ACMA_6.1 examen   ACMA_6.1

NO.4 When configuring a default gateway in the startup wizard it must be a part of:
A. A VLAN configured with an IP interface and assigned to a port
B. An IP range that is not assigned to a port or VLAN
C. A VLAN assigned to a port but without an IP interface configured
D. A VLAN not configured on the controller
E. The management Vlan
Answer: A

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NO.5 What information is required by an AP in order to boot? (Select three)
A. AP's IP Address, Netmask, Default Gateway
B. AP's Name and Group
C. Aruba Controller's Master IP Address
D. An established NTP connection to the Master Controller
E. Establish an IPSEC tunnel with the Master controller
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 Which of the following statements about management accounts is false?
A. The root account can be used to monitor access points connected to the controller
B. The guest-provisioning account can see the controller's configuration but cannot change it
C. The read-only account cannot delete internal database entries
D. The guest-provisioning account can make changes to the internal AP database
E. The network-operations account cannot access configuration
Answer: B

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NO.7 In a Campus AP deployment, an access point has been provisioned statically with an IP address,
subnet mask, default gateway and Controller IP address. Control Plane Security has been disabled.
Both the Controller and the Access Point are using 6.1 firmware. If a 3rd party firewall is placed in
between the AP and controller, what traffic would need to be allowed for the AP to boot
successfully and broadcast Wireless Networks? (Select two)
A. DHCP
B. PAPI
C. GRE
D. SNMP
E. NTP
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 Which of the following parameters is not needed by Visual RF Plan in order to Plan APs on a
floor region?
A. AP Type
B. PHY Type
C. Distance to Controller
D. Environment
E. Desired Data Rate
Answer: C

Aruba   ACMA_6.1   ACMA_6.1 examen   ACMA_6.1   ACMA_6.1 examen   ACMA_6.1 examen

NO.9 Which of the following cannot be accomplished from the startup wizard?
A. Basic controller configuration
B. License installation
C. VPN configuration
D. WLAN configuration
E. Firewall Roles
Answer: C

Aruba examen   ACMA_6.1 examen   ACMA_6.1 examen   ACMA_6.1   ACMA_6.1

NO.10 802.11n APs operate in which bands? (Select two)
A. 900 MHz
B. 2.4 GHz
C. 2.4 MHz
D. 5 GHz
E. 5 MHz
Answer: B,D

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Code d'Examen: 9A0-150
Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe Photoshop CS5 ACE Exam)
Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

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NO.1 You want to print a digital photograph on a professional desktopinkjet printer. You have a custom
ICCprofile for your printer, paper, andink combination in thecolorManagement area of the Print dialog
box,which option will allow you to choose your custom ICC profile for use in printing?
A. Photoshop Manages Colors
B. Printer Manages Colors
C. Separations
D. Proof Setup
Answer: D

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NO.2 When creating a Web Photo Gallery through Adobe Bridge, how does the application handle the color
management of images in the gallery?
A. Allimages are converted to sRGB IEC61966-2.1, and the color profile is embedded.
B. Allmages are converted to Adobe RGB (1998), and the color profile is embedded
C. Image files are not converted during processing, but Color Settings are changed to sRGB JEC61966-2
1
D. Image filesare converted to the current monitor profile, and the color profile is not embedded.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You have added a layer mask to a single-layer file so that the image fades gradually from foil opacity
tofully transparent You want to export this as a web graphic In the Save for Web & Devices dialog box,
which settings willbest preserve the transparency inthe optimized version of the image?
A. PNG-24 file format with the Transparency option checked
B. GIF file format with the Transparency option checked
C. JPEG file format with Matte color set tonone
D. WBMP Se format with the Diffusion option selected
Answer: A

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NO.4 You're soft-proofing an RGB image with an ICC profile used for newspaper reproduction. You select the
Simulate Paper Color option in the Customize Proof Condition dialog box. What happens?
A. The highlightsinyour documentsare adjusted to match the white of the paper.
B. You're prompted to select the appropriate paper color from the Color Picker.
C. The highlights in yourdocument appear brighter and more saturated.
D. The brightness of the user interface elements is dimmed for an accurate image preview
Answer: D

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NO.5 You've adjusted a raw photographinCamera Raw, and you'd like to create a small copy of the adjusted
photograph as a JPEG to attach to an email.Which is the best workflow to follow?
A. In Camera Raw, click the Open Image button. Then,inPhotoshop, open the Save for Web & Devices
dialog box, and set the format to JPEG, reduce the file size, and click Save.
B. In Camera Raw, click the Save Image button, and save as JPEG Then open the file in Photoshop,
resize it in the Image Size dialog box. and save as JPEG
C. In Camera Raw, click the Save Image button, and save as JPEG Then open the file in Photoshop,
open the Save for Web & Devices dialog box, and set die format to JPEG, reduce the file size, and click
Save
D. In Camera Raw,click the Save Image button, and save as JPEG Then select the He in Mini-Bridge,
choose Tools > Photoshop > Image Processor, and resize and save as JPEG from there
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are adjusting aphotographin the Camera Raw dialogbox.You have darkenedthe top of the imageby
dragging theGraduated Filter toolfrom the top to the bottomof the image,and decreasing the
brightnessslider. Nowyou want to lightenthe bottom of the photograph. What should you do?
A. Option-click (Mac OS) or Alt-click (Window)the redcircleicon in thegraduatedfilter you ¯ veapp li ed t o t he
image; then increase the brightness slider.
B. Click the + (plus) buttonto the right of brightnessslider,and thenincrease both the Brightnessand
Exposure Sliders.
C. Increasethe Brightnessslider,click the New button,and drag the graduated Filter toolfrom the bottom to
the top of the photograph
D. Drag theGraduated Filter toolfrom the bottomto the top of the photograph;then increase the Brightness
slider.
Answer: D

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NO.7 You are slicing aweb page layout. You draw one slice with the Slice tool and Photoshop fills inthe
surrounding areas with automatically-generated auto slices.When you click on one of those other slices
with the Slice Select Tool it does not highlight with position handles.What should you do to display the
positionhandles.
A. Double-click theSlice with the Slice tool
B. Ctrl-dick (Windows) or Command-click (Mac OS) with the Slice Select Tool
C. Choose die Move tool and select Show Transform Controls m the Options bar.
D. Click the Promote button m the Options bar
Answer: B

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NO.8 You ¯ vead j us t eda r a w pho t og r aph i n C a m e r a R aw . N o w you a r e r eady t o open t he i m age i n Pho t oshop t o
add some text.However, you want to be able to quicklybring the image from Photoshopback in to Camera
Raw adjustments.What should you do?
A. Click thesave image buttonin Camera Raw,then open the saved file directly in Photoshop.
B. Click the Done buttonin Camera Raw, then open the file directly in thePhotoshop.
C. Hold downthe Shift key to change the Open Image buttonto Open Object,and click the button.
D. Hold the Option (Mac OS)or Alt(Windows)key and click the done button.
Answer: C

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NO.9 You want to open a JPEG directly into Camera Raw to adjust it there. What should you do? (Choose
two.)
A. In Adobe Bridge, select the JPEG thumbnail and press Control+R (Windows) or Command+R (Mac
OS)
B. In Adobe Bridge, hold down Option (Mac OS) or Alt (Windows) and double-click the JPEGthumbnail
C. In Adobe Bridge, select the JPEG thumbnail and then choose File >Place > In Photoshop.
D. In Photoshop, choose File > Open, select the JPEG file, set the Format menu to Camera Raw, andclick
Open
E. In Photoshop, navigate to the JPEG fileinMini Bridge and double-click its thumbnail
Answer: D,E

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NO.10 You are adjustinga rawphotographinCamera Raw,and you want to increasecontrast in the midtonesof
the photograph.WhichCamera Rawcontrol should you use?
A. The Clarity Slider
B. The Full Light Slider
C. The Brightness Slider
D. The Recovery Slider
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 9A0-063
Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe Acrobat Professional 8.0 ACE Exam)
Questions et réponses: 111 Q&As

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NO.1 You want to examine and make corrections to your PDF document for common output problems,
compatibility issues, and conformance to standards. Which should you choose?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You want to allow users to add a digital signature to your document by using Adobe Reader 8. Which
command should you choose?
A.Advanced > Security Settings
B.Advanced > Sign & Certify > Place Signature
C.Advanced > Enable Usage Rights in Adobe Reader
D.Advanced > Document Processing > Set Document Actions
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are using the Review Tracker to send out an email review. You have sent out the initial email.
Which two Review Tracker features are available? (Choose two.)
A.Add Reviewers
B.Import Comments
C.Migrate Comments
D.Email All Reviewers
E.Summarize Comments
Answer: AD

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NO.4 Which information can you preview by Selecting Preview Separations from the Output Preview dialog
box?
A.Resolution
B.Halftone screens
C.Emulsion options
D.One or more process plates
Answer: D

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NO.5 You want to create a separate archive of all the images in your PDF document. Which command
should you choose?
A.Document > Extract Pages
B.File > Export > Image > JPEG
C.Tools > Advanced Editing > TouchUp Object Tool
D.Advanced > Document Processing > Export All Images
Answer: D

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NO.6 You are creating a PDF document from a Microsoft Word document. You want to automatically include
the metadata from the Word document in the PDF document. Which option in the Acrobat PDFMaker
dialog box should you select?
A.Add Links to Adobe PDF
B.Add Bookmarks to Adobe PDF
C.Convert Document Information
D.Prompt for Adobe PDF file name
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which Print Production tool allows you to convert all of the spot colors in a document to process colors?
A.Ink Manager
B.Trap Presets
C.PDF Optimizer
D.Output Preview
Answer: A

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NO.8 You want to use the Output Preview dialog box to show the areas of your document that have a total
ink coverage of 280% or higher. Which should you choose?
A.Ink Manager
B.Simulate Black Ink
C.Total Area Coverage
D.Simulate Paper Color
Answer: C

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NO.9 What does right-clicking (Windows) or control-clicking (Mac OS) on a toolbar allow you to do?
A.Undock and redock the toolbar
B.Add or delete items from a toolbar
C.Hide or show button labels on the toolbar
D.Create or delete new tools with JavaScript
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which feature is enabled for a Participant in an Adobe Acrobat Connect session?
A.Polling pods
B.The Note pod
C.Screen Sharing
D.The Camera pod
Answer: D

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NO.11 You want to export all the images in a PDF document to separate JPEG files. Which command should
you choose?
A.File > Save As > JPEG
B.Document > Extract Pages
C.File > Export > Image > JPEG
D.Advanced > Document Processing > Export All Images
Answer: D

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NO.12 What does Total Ink Coverage preview display?
A.Spot colors that overlap process color areas
B.The total percentage of a page covered by any ink
C.The percentage of a process-color ink in a solid-color object
D.Areas that exceed the maximum amount of ink coverage allowed by a printer
Answer: D

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NO.13 You want to edit the text of a PDF document. Which command should you choose to convert the PDF
document into a document that you can edit?
A.File > Export > XML 1.0
B.Document > Extract Pages
C.File > Export > Word Document
D.File > Save As and choose PostScript from the format list
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which statement about security envelopes is true?
A.Only PDF files can be protected with a security envelope
B.Security envelopes are only compatible with Acrobat 8 and Reader 8
C.They contain the protected file as an attachment to the envelope PDF
D.You can not use a policy server or Adobe Document Center policy with them
Answer: C

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NO.15 You want to use the Attachments panel to add an attachment to a PDF document. Which icon displays
the Add Attachment dialog box?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which statement about toolbars is true?
A.You can hide tools on a toolbar
B.You can add any tool to any toolbar
C.You can combine two toolbars together
D.You can only dock default toolbars in the interface above the document window
Answer: A

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NO.17 You want to collaboratively edit a PowerPoint presentation. Which method should you use?
A.Conduct an e-mail-based review
B.Send the PowerPoint slides in a PDF Package
C.Attach the PowerPoint slides to a Shared Review
D.Collaborate via the Web with Adobe Acrobat Connect
Answer: D

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NO.18 You have saved a PDF document by using the Enable Usage Rights command Which two features
are available when the file is opened in Adobe Reader? (Choose two.)
A.Saving form data
B.Applying a password to a PDF document
C.Using commenting and drawing mark-up tools
D.Applying restrictions for printing and copying the PDF document
E.Saving the PDF document as a Microsoft Word document, retaining the layout, fonts, formatting, and
tables
Answer: AC

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NO.19 You want to export your PDF document to a file format that will retain the layout and allow you to edit
the text. Which format should you choose?
A.TIFF
B.JPEG
C.XML 1.0
D.Word Document
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which tool on the Print Production toolbar can be accessed from the Output Preview dialog box?
A.Ink Manager
B.Crop Pages
C.Trap Presets
D.Add Printer Marks
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 9A0-036
Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe PhotoShop CS ACE Exam)
Questions et réponses: 148 Q&As

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NO.1 Exhibit.
In the exhibit, what does the icon on the left indicate?
A.that the action is currently being recorded
B.that all the steps in the action offer the user a dialog box
C.that one or more, but not all, steps in the action offer the user a dialog box
D.that the action is currently paused in playback, waiting for a response from the user
Answer: C

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NO.2 You have been editing an image. You want to restore certain small areas of the image to their condition
before your last several edits.
Which tool or command should you use?
A.Eraser tool
B.Edit > Undo
C.History Brush tool
D.Edit > Step Backward
Answer: C

Adobe examen   9A0-036   9A0-036

NO.3 You are using the Shadow/Highlight command to correct an underexposed image.
Which value determines the scale size for corrections?
A.Radius
B.Amount
C.Tonal Width
D.MidtoneContrast
Answer: A

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NO.4 You have a photo of a green leaf. The leaf is in sharp focus and is against a blurred green background.
You want to make a selection that follows the contour of the leaf.
What should you do?
A.use the Find Edges filter
B.use the Magic Wand tool
C.use the Magnetic Lasso tool
D.choose Select >ColorRange
Answer: C

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NO.5 You have made a feathered selection. You then repeatedly fill the selected area with different colors.
Which statement is true?
A.Traces of the earlier color fills remain at the feathered edges of the selection.
B.At the feathered edges of the selection only the image's luminosityareaffected, not its hue or saturation.
C.At the feathered edges of the selection only the image's hue and saturation area affected, not its
luminosity.
D.Though fading in opacity at the feathered edges of the selection, the newer fills completely overwrite the
earlier ones.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You are recording an action. During its playback, you want an image's magnification to be adjusted to fit
the image on screen.
What should you do?
A.choose View > Fit on Screen
B.when you get to the point for the magnification change, choose View > Fit on Screen
C.use the Insert Menu Item command from the Action palette menu, then choose View > Actual Pixels
D.Use the Insert Menu Item command from the Action palette menu, then choose View > Fit on Screen
Answer: D

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NO.7 You are trying to lighten only the darkest shadows in an image by choosing Image > Adjustments >
Shadow/Highlight. You notice that lighter areas are being affected as well.
What should you do?
A.increase the Radius setting
B.decrease the Radius setting
C.increase the Tonal Width setting
D.decrease the Tonal Width setting
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which option from the Brushes palette allows you to determine the number and placement of marks in a
stroke?
A.Texture
B.Scattering
C.Shape Dynamics
D.Brush Tip Shapes
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which option in the Auto Color Correction Options dialog box preserves the overall color relationship
while making highlights appear lighter and shadows appear darker?
A.Snap NeutralMidtones
B.Find Dark & Light Colors
C.Enhance Per Channel Contrast
D.Enhance Monochromatic Contrast
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which items are saved as part of a workspace?
A.tool settings and palette positions
B.tool settings and keyboard shortcuts
C.palette positions and keyboard shortcuts
D.the positions of all open palettes and the toolbox
Answer: D

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NO.11 You are suing the Pattern Stamp tool to paint in your image.
Which tool option ensures that the pattern is applied continuously, rather than from the initial sampling
point, regardless of how many times you stop and resume painting with the pattern?
A.Flow
B.Aligned
C.Impressionist
D.Protect Texture
Answer: B

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NO.12 You are working in the Levels dialog box. The pixels in the image cover a range from 0-220. You want to
increase the contrast in the highlight areas of the image.
What should you do?
A.increase the value for the black Input Level
B.decrease the value for the white Input Level
C.increase the value for the black Output Level
D.decrease the value for the white Output Level
Answer: B

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NO.13 You want to paint a layer by using the Brush tool with an opacity setting of 50%.
Where do you change the opacity setting?
A.Status Bar
B.Layer palette
C.Brushes palette
D.Tool Options Bar
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which layer parameter can be saved when creating a Layer Comp?
A.layer styles
B.layer opacity
C.layer stacking order
D.layer blending mode
Answer: A

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NO.15 Exhibit.
Which Character palette option controls kerning?
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
Answer: A

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NO.16 You have selected the Type tool. You want to create a new type layer overlapping a previous one.
What should you do?
A.double click with the Type tool
B.hold down the Shift key as you click with the Type tool
C.holddown the Option (Mac OS) or Alt (Windows) key as you click with the Type tool.
D.Hold down the Command (Mac OS) or Ctrl (Windows) key as you click withtheTypetool.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Exhibit.
You want to create a shape layer by drawing in a freeform manner.
Which two buttons from the Vector Tools Options Bar should you choose? (Choose two.)
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
E.E
Answer: A, D

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NO.18 Exhibit.
The three images in the exhibit were scanned together. You apply the File>Automate>Crop and
Straighten Photos command.
What is the result?
A.A separate layer is created for each image, excluding the white border, and each is rotated to correct for
its
crookedness.
B.A separate layer is created for each image, including some white border, and each is rotated to correct for
its
crookedness.
C.A separate document is created for each image, excluding the white border, and each is rotated to correct
for
its crookedness.
D.A separate document is created for each image, including some white border, and each is rotated to correct
for its crookedness.
Answer: C

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NO.19 You are applying an action to a group of images using the Batch command. The action contains a SaveAs
TIFF command, with specific options chosen. You want the processed files to be saved with those options,
but to be renamed.
Which two options in the Batch dialog box should you choose? (Choose two.)
A.Batch Rename
B.Destination: Folder
C.Include All Subfolders
D.Destination: Save and Close
E.Override Action "Save As" Commands
Answer: AB

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NO.20 You want to modify the tonal range of an image without permanently affecting the pixels.
What should you do?
A.use Variations
B.use Auto Levels
C.use a layer style
D.use an adjustment layer
Answer: D

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NO.21 Exhibit.
In the exhibit, which gradient was used to create the result to the right?
A.Angle Gradient
B.Redial Gradient
C.Diamond Gradient
D.Reflected Gradient
Answer: C

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NO.22 Which parameter can you monitor in the Status Bar?
A.the name of the active layer
B.the document's color profile
C.the name of the active document
D.the document's modification date
Answer: B

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NO.23 Exhibit.
Which tool can completely eliminate the white pixels in the background of the image shown in the exhibit
with a single click?
A.Eraser
B.Extract
C.Magic Eraser
D.Color Replacement
Answer: C

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NO.24 An overexposed photograph has nearly no detail in its highlights, but otherwise has acceptable tonal
balance.
Which option from the Image > Adjustments menu should you use to reveal the details in the highlights?
A.Gradient Map
B.Channel Mixer
C.Shadow/Highlight
D.Brightness/Contrast
Answer: C

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NO.25 Exhibit.
You have created type on a path. You want to move the type along the path.
Which tool (s) should you sue to drag the type?
A.Move tool
B.Path Type tool
C.Horizontal or Vertical Type tool
D.Path Selection or Direct Selection tool
Answer: D

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NO.26 You have created a rough selection of an object in your image. You want to refine the selection by suing
quick mask with its default settings and the Brush tool.
Which statement is true?
A.Painting with white adds to the selection
B.Painting with black adds to the selection.
C.The opacity setting of the brush is irrelevant.
D.The foreground color must be either black or white.
Answer: A

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NO.27 You have saved as selection as a channel. You now want to load and reuse the selection.
What should you do?
A.drag the alpha channel into the image window
B.Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) click on the alpha channel
C.Ctrl (Windows) or Command (Mac OS)click on the alpha channel
D.Right-click (Windows) or Control-click (Mac OS) on the channel and choose Load Channel as Selection
Answer: C

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NO.28 You have created several custom contours for Drop Shadow effects. You want to save the custom
contours as a set while maintaining the default contours.
What should you do?
A.from the Styles palette menu, choose Save Styles
B.from the Layer palette menu, choose New Layer Set
C.in the Preset Manager dialog box, select the contours and click on Save Set
D.whileediting contours in the Layer Style dialog box, choose Save Contours from the fly-out menu.
Answer: C

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NO.29 What would you most likely need to do afterresamplinga 20 megabyte image to 100 kilobytes using
BicubicInterpolation?
A.Blur
B.Sharpen
C.Add Noise
D.Auto Levels
Answer: B

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NO.30 You want to crate a diagonal elliptical marquee.
What should you do?
A.hold down the spacebar and rotate the marquee while dragging with the Elliptical Marquee tool
B.create a marquee with the Elliptical Marquee tool, then rotate it by choosing Edit > Free Transform
C.create a marquee with the Elliptical Marquee tool, then rotate it by choosing Select > Transform Selection
D.While dragging with the Elliptical Marquee tool, hold down Alt (Windows) or Option (Mac OS) and rotate
the marquee
Answer: C

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