2014年8月14日星期四

SOA Certified Professional S90-03A S90-18A C90-03A examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: S90-03A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Design & Architecture)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

Code d'Examen: S90-18A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Fundamental SOA Security)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C90-03A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Cloud Technology Lab)
Questions et réponses: 21 Q&As

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NO.1 The manager of an IT department decides to split up an existing enterprise service inventory into two
domain service inventories. The public key used previously in the enterprise service inventory can
continue to be used in one of the domain service inventories.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.2 A task service needs to access three entity services as part of a service composition. The task service
needs to authenticate itself every time it accesses one of the three entity services. Because the task
service must authenticate itself three times to complete its task, the current service composition design is
considered inefficient. How can it be improved while continuing to fulfill the authentication requirements?
A. Increase the network bandwidth between the task service and the entity services.
B. Use a single sign-on mechanism.
C. Remove the authentication requirements within the service composition, thereby reducing the
message size and making communication faster.
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.3 The requirement to defer security related state data at runtime relates directly to the application of which
service-orientation principle?
A. Service Loose Coupling
B. Service Autonomy
C. Service Abstraction
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.4 The application of the Data Origin Authentication pattern only provides message integrity.?
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.5 The owner of a service inventory reports that the public key related to a certain private key has been
lost. There is a concern that this was the result of a security breach. A security specialist recommends
contacting the certificate authority in order to add the corresponding certificate to the certificate authority's
Certificate Revocation List (CRL). However, the certificate authority responds by indicating that this is not
necessary. Which of the following answers explains this response?
A. The certificate authority needs to issue a new public key instead.
B. The certificate authority requires that the existing public key needs to be changed within the existing
certificate.
C. Public keys cannot get lost because they are alreadypublicallyavailable.
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.6 The SAML and WS-Security industry standards can be applied to the same service composition
architecture.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.7 The use of XML-Encryption supports the application of the Service Abstraction principle because the
actual message remains hidden from the attacker.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following is not a hashing algorithm?
A. MD5
B. X.509
C. SHA-1
D. SHA-256
Answer: B

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Dernières SOA Certified Professional C90-05A S90-19A examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: C90-05A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Advance Cloud Architecture - C90.05)
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

Code d'Examen: S90-19A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Advanced SOA Security)
Questions et réponses: 83 Q&As

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NO.1 Applying the Dynamic Failure Detection and Recovery pattern establishes a
_____________that can monitor and respond to runtime failure conditions.
A. Watchdog system
B. Capacityplanner system
C. Failover system C D.Intelligent automation engine
Answer: A

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NO.2 The application of the Elastic Resource Capacity pattern results in a system that can
dynamically allocate and reclaim __________________ and __________________ for virtual
servers, in response to fluctuating processing requirements.
A. RAM memory, CPUs
B. storage capacity, LUN5
C. virtual switches, uplinks
D. load balanced IT resources, clustered IT resources
Answer: A

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NO.3 The system established by applying the Elastic Network Capacity pattern ensures that
individual cloud consumer __________________ are isolated, and that each cloud consumer is
using its own set of __________________.
A. virtual servers, physical uplinks
B. cloud storage devices, virtual switches
C. traffic workflows, network ports
D. hypervisors, network switches
Answer: C

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NO.4 The system that results from the application of the Elastic Disk Provisioning pattern uses the
thin-provisioning program to create virtual server disks.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following statements about the system that is established by the application of
the Redundant Physical Connection for Virtual Servers pattern are true? (Choose Three)
A. The system can establish multiple redundant uplink connections.
B. The system can prevent cloud consumers from losing connectivity to virtual servers.
C. The system regulates the bandwidth that is allocated to individual uplink connections.
D. The system places redundant uplink connections in standby mode.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.6 A load balancing system is established after the Load Balanced Virtual Switches pattern is
applied. This system uses _____________to balance workloads across multiple uplinks
simultaneously, to prevent network cards from overloading.
A. Load Balanced Virtual Switches, link aggregation
B. Load Balanced Virtual Server Instances, secondary uplinks
C. Workload Distribution, virtual switch replication
D. Service Load Balancing, cloud service replication
Answer: A

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NO.7 The application of the _____________pattern results in a dynamic vertical scaling system
that uses the _____________program to move LUNs to cloud storage devices of higher capacity.
A. Cross-Storage Device Vertical Tiering, LUN migration
B. Intra-Storage Device Vertical Tiering, storage replication
C. Shared Resources, rapid provisioning
D. Noneoftheabove.
Answer: A

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NO.8 In a cloud architecture resulting from the application of the Cloud Bursting compound pattern,
the _________________ mechanism is used to maintain synchronizing between a cloud consumer's
on-premise and cloud-based IT resources.
A. hypervisor
B. resource pooling
C. automated scaling listener
D. resource replication
Answer: D

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SOA Certified Professional meilleur examen C90-02A S90-05A, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: C90-02A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Cloud Technology Concepts)
Questions et réponses: 87 Q&As

Code d'Examen: S90-05A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Technology Lab)
Questions et réponses: 40 Q&As

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NO.1 A partner organization has given you samples of XML documents retrieved from their product
information database. The three samples they have sent you are: Because they are an important partner,
you have agreed to write a service to accept XML documents in their format. However, they did not send
you a schema, so you are tasked with defining a schema that will correctly validate their documents.
Which of the following XML schemas will successfully validate each of the above XML document
fragments.?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B

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NO.2 Your company has developed a service that allows your customers to check the status of an order. The
schema for the service is shown here:
A new customer plans to use your service, but they want to test it first. They have asked for two sample
XML documents that show typical input and output message content. Which of the following pairs of XML
elements will validate with the schema shown above?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are a consultant helping a large bank implement an on-line banking service for its customers. The
first operation you need to build is one that allows a customer to initiate a transfer of funds. You are
presented with the following sample XML document that represents the funds transfer information that
this operation needs to be able to receive:
<transfer>
< fromAccount>12345 </fromAccount>
< toAccount>44432 </toAccount>
<amount>2000</amount>
</transfer>
You are also provided with the following sample that shows that the response message sent by the
service needs to return a single element with text content:
<transferStatus>SUCCESS</transferStatus>
Which of the following XML schemas will validate the two samples shown above?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your developer is asked to build a Timesheet service that is able to receive timesheet submissions for
an internal payroll system. Service consumers need to be able to send this service request message
based on a root "employeeHours" element within the SOAP message body. The "employeeHourse"
element will contain "ernpID" and "hours" child elements. Furthermore, the service needs to return a
message based on a "response" element that contains "empID" and "status" child elements.
Your developer comes to you with the following WSDL definition: The only revision you suggest is that the
value of the "style" attribute of the "soap: binding" element be changed to "document" instead of "rpc".
Why?
A. With a value of "rpc", the root element within the SOAP message body will have the name of the
operation, and therefore cannot be named "employeeHours" as indicated by the requirements.
B. With a value of "rpc", the root element within the SOAP message body is unable to be part of an
operation that contains both "input" and "output" elements.
C. The value of "rpc" is not a valid value for the "style" attribute.
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Your company has developed a PO service that allows customers to submit purchase order documents.
The message sent by a customer must be based on a predefined "purchaseOrder" element and the
message received by the customer is based on a "messageAcknowledgement" element. These two
elements are defined in the following two separate XML Schema definitions: The "purchaseOrder.xsd"
schema:
Note that these two schemas have different namespaces. That is because the "purchaseOrder.xsd"
schema is specific to purchase order-related functions, while the "ack.xsd" schema is more generic and
used for a variety of different purposes.
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: A

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Les meilleures SOA Certified Professional S90-01A C90-06A S90-20A examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: S90-01A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Fundamental SOA & Service-Oriented Computing)
Questions et réponses: 76 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C90-06A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Cloud Architecture Lab)
Questions et réponses: 15 Q&As

Code d'Examen: S90-20A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Security Lab)
Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

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NO.1 Cloud Sen/ice A is hosted by Virtual Server A, which is hosted by Hypervisor A on Physical
Server
A. Cloud Service B is hosted by Virtual Server B.
Virtual Server C hosts Cloud Services C and D.
Virtual Server B and Virtual Server C are hosted by Hypervisor B on Physical Server B.
Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A (1). Cloud Service Consumer B accesses Cloud
Service A (2). Cloud Service Consumer C accesses Cloud Service A (3) and then accesses Cloud
Service B (4).
Cloud Service Consumers A, B and C simultaneously access Cloud Service A.
Cloud Service Consumer C receives a runtime exception and its request for access is rejected. It is
determined that Cloud Service Consumer C attempted to upload a large amount of input data for
Cloud Service A, which exceeded the bandwidth threshold of the virtual network. The cloud
architecture needs to be improved to avoid this from happening again.
Cloud Service Consumer C's repeated access of Cloud Service B imposes workloads that are large
and highly unpredictable. After some time, Cloud Service B begins to delay its responses and
sometimes times out entirely. The cloud resource administrator discovers that Virtual Server B is
unstable and close to failure primarily because its CPU and memory resources are being used to
their maximum capacity.
Cloud Services C and D are being positioned as SaaS products for use by a range of cloud consumer
organizations. After their initial release, they begin to quickly use up the available memory in Virtual
Server C, primarily because of the large amounts of state and session data they need to place into
memory for extended periods.
Which of the following statements lists the patterns that can be applied to solve these three
requirements and problems?
A. Elastic Network Capacity, Load Balanced Virtual Server Instances, Service State Management
B. Elastic Resource Capacity, Service Load Balancing, Synchronized Operating State
C. Persistent Virtual Network Configuration. Load Balanced Virtual Switches, Service State
Management
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Cloud Service A requires access to Cloud Storage Device A, which contains LUNs A and B.
Cloud Service A is hosted by Virtual Server A, which resides on Hypervisor A on Physical Server A.
Virtual Server B hosts Cloud Service B and Cloud Service C.
Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A (1), which then accesses LUN A or B on Cloud
Storage Device A (2). After receiving the requested data from Cloud Service A, Cloud Service
Consumer A forwards the data to Cloud Service B (3), which then writes it to Cloud Storage Device B
(4).
Cloud Service Consumer A belongs to Organization A.
Organization A uses LUN A and LUN B on Cloud Storage Device A to store their important client
account data. Cloud Storage Device A is a low-performance cloud storage device, which begins to
cause performance issues as more data is added to LUNs A and B and as Cloud Service Consumer A
performs data access requests more frequently. Organization A asks that its cloud architecture be
upgraded to process increased quantities of data and higher volumes of data requests.
Organization A has been leasing a PaaS environment that it used to build Cloud Service A, which it
would like to make available to the general public. Organization A needs to establish a system
capable of monitoring usage of Cloud Service A for billing purposes.
The cloud provider is using a usage data collection and reporting system that gathers information on
Organization A's hosted IT resources approximately ten hours after the time of usage. One day,
Organization A attempts to retrieve information on whether Virtual Server B has available Cloud
Service C instances. They discover that they are unable to obtain the current status of Virtual Server
B.
Organization A demands a system that provides instant availability reporting.
Which of the following statements lists the patterns that can be applied to solve these three
requirements and problems?
Which of the following statements lists the patterns that can be applied to solve these three
requirements and problems?
A. Cross-Storage Device Vertical Tiering, Pay-as-You-Go. Self-Provisioning
B. Service Load Balancing, Pay-as-You-Go, Multipath Resource Access
C. Intra-Storage Device Vertical Data Tiering, Usage Monitoring, Centralized Remote Administration
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Cloud Storage Device A contains LUN A and can be accessed by external cloud consumers via a
proprietary user portal that is used primarily by cloud consumers to upload and manage data for
backup purposes. Pay-Per-Use Monitor A tracks the amount of data being uploaded and forwards
this information to a billing management system. Cloud Storage Device B is a secondary cloud
storage device. Data from Cloud Storage Device A is replicated synchronously to Cloud Storage
Device B using a storage replication program (not shown). Cloud Storage Device A is further
administered by a cloud resource administrator that works for the cloud provider, who accesses the
cloud storage device via an internal usage and administration portal.
Three different cloud consumers (Sarah. William, Matilda) access Cloud Storage Device A to upload
data for backup purposes (1). These three cloud consumers belong to different
departments within the same organization, and therefore all three share LUN A.
Pay-Per-Use Monitor A collects the storage space data and forwards it to the billing management
system (2).
The cloud provider offers premium and discount storage plans. With the premium plan, the data
stored on Cloud Storage Device A is also replicated to Cloud Storage Device B.
With the discount plan, the data stored on Cloud Storage Device A is not replicated. Both plans are
based on fixed-disk storage allocation. The cost of the premium plan is $5 per week for every GB of
storage space and the cost of the discount plan is $2 per week for every GB of storage space. The
SLA from the cloud provider guarantees availability of 97% for access to Cloud Storage Device A.
The three cloud consumers use Cloud Storage Device A as follows:
-Sara signs up for the discount backup plan and is allocated 50 GBs of storage space. A week later,
she uploads 10 GBs of backup data. A week after that, she uploads another 35 GBs. She later finds
out that for those two weeks her organization was billed $200, which is more than she was
expecting. After she complains to the cloud provider, she learns about how fixed-disk storage
allocation is billed. She asks the cloud provider to change her account to a different
storage plan where she is only billed for the actual amount of storage space she uses at any
given time. The cloud provider assures her that a new system will be set up to accommodate
this request.
-William is on the premium backup plan. He uploads 1 to 3 GBs of important business data every
day. After two weeks of daily uploads, he realizes that the centralized nature of the backup data on
the cloud makes it more convenient for reporting purposes than the distributed nature of the same
data in his on-premise environment. He uses an analysis tool to run queries against the cloud-based
data. However, due to the large quantity of redundant data, the queries end up being ineffective
and take too long to run. He asks the cloud provider to find a solution that can streamline the
cloud-based data by reducing redundancy. By reducing the overall quantity of the data, the analysis
queries will run faster.
-Matilda is on the discount backup plan and uploads backup data on a daily basis. Over the course
of two weeks she uploads over 200 GBs of data. She performs a daily backup at the end of each day
by identifying the data to back up and then using the proprietary user portal to run the cloud
backup procedure. This procedure can take 5 to 45 minutes, depending on the amount of data she
is uploading. Matilda performs this as her last task of the day and therefore initiates the procedure
before she leaves, but does not wait for it to complete. One day, she receives an e-mail from the
cloud provider explaining that the backup procedure from the previous day had failed due to an
unexpected hardware failure that occurred on Cloud Storage Device A.
The notification e-mail goes on to state that this type of failure falls within the 97% availability
guarantee of her organization's SLA, and is therefore in compliance with the current provisioning
agreement. Had a disaster occurred that night, the on-premise data could have been lost and
Matilda would be held accountable. Matilda contacts the cloud provider to demand that the
provisioning agreement be amended to upgrade their existing SLA to the maximum possible
availability (which, for this cloud provider, is 99.999%). The cloud provider agrees to establish a
system to accommodate this request.
Which of the following statements lists the patterns that can be applied to address the three issues
raised by the three cloud consumers?
A. Storage Workload Management, Elastic Disk Provisioning, Centralized Remote Administration
B. Elastic Disk Provisioning, Dynamic Data Normalization, Zero Downtime
C. Storage Maintenance Window, Dynamic Failure Detection and Recovery, Broad Access
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Ready-Made Environment A is hosted by Virtual Server A and Ready-Made Environments is
hosted by Virtual Server B.
Virtual Servers A and B are hosted by Hypervisor A, which is part of a hypervisor cluster. An
automated scaling listener intercepts cloud consumer requests and automatically invokes the
on-demand generation of additional instances of ready-made environments, as required.
A self-service portal and a usage and administration portal are also available to cloud consumers.
The self-service portal can be used to request the provisioning of a new ready-made environment.
Any cloud consumer that has already had a ready-made environment provisioned can configure and
view information about that ready-made environment via the usage and administration portal.
Cloud Consumer A accesses Ready-Made Environment A to work on the development of a new
cloud service (1). Cloud Consumer B accesses Ready-Made Environment B to test a recently
completed application comprised of three cloud services (2). Cloud Consumer C accesses the
self-service portal to request the creation of a new ready-made environment (3).
The cloud provider is required to perform an emergency maintenance outage on a cloud storage
device used by all ready-made environments. The unplanned outage takes two hours. During this
period, Cloud Consumers A and B are unable to access Ready-Made Environments A and B and
Cloud Consumer C receives an error when submitting a request to create a new ready-made
environment.
After the maintenance outage is over, Cloud Consumers A and B encounter the following problems:
-Cloud Consumer A is unable to recover session data that was kept in memory for an extended
period, prior to the time of the outage. -Cloud Consumer B has no access to Virtual Server B, which
was moved to Hypervisor B during
the maintenance outage. When Cloud Consumer B attempts to ping Virtual Server B, the
request times out.
Even though Cloud Consumer C is able to log into the usage and administration portal to confirm
that its ready-made environment was successfully provisioned, the unexpected outage has raised
concerns about the stability of the ready-made environment's underlying infrastructure. Cloud
Consumer C informs the cloud provider that it cannot proceed with its lease of the ready-made
environment if there are future occurrences of this type of maintenance outage.
Which of the following statements can help address the problems and concerns of the three cloud
consumers?
A. A combination of the Load Balanced Virtual Server Instances and Synchronized Operating State
patterns can be applied to establish a system capable of deferring state across multiple cloud
storage devices, each located on a different virtual server. The Elastic Disk Provisioning pattern can
be applied to persist virtual server configuration data across hypervisors so that connectivity is
preserved whenever a virtual server is relocated to a different hypervisor. The Zero Downtime
pattern can be applied to ensure that none of the ready-made environments or virtual servers are
subject to a maintenance outage in the future.
B. The Elastic Disk Provisioning and Cross-Storage Device Vertical Tiering patterns can be applied to
establish a cloud architecture that supports a set of cloud storage devices, each with different tiers
that cloud consumers can choose to scale to The Synchronized Operating State pattern can be
applied in combination with the Hypervisor Clustering pattern to avoid further virtual server and
ready-made environment connectivity problems. The Redundant Storage pattern can be applied so
that if a cloud storage device fails, a secondary implementation of the cloud storage device
automatically takes over processing tasks, thereby avoiding outages.
C. The Service State Management pattern can be appliedto establish a system that canpersist
session data in a database. The Persistent Virtual Network Configuration pattern can be applied to
centralize the configuration data necessary for virtual servers to remain accessible after they have
been relocated to different hypervisors. The Storage Maintenance Window pattern can be applied
to establish a system that allows cloud storage devices to be maintained without causing outages.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Cloud Service A is hosted by Virtual Server A, which is hosted by Hypervisor A that resides on
Physical Server A.
Cloud Storage Device A is used to store media library data that is continuously replicated with a
redundant, secondary implementation of Cloud Storage A (not shown). Access to Cloud Service A is
monitored by Pay-Per-Use Monitor A.
Access to Cloud Storage Device A is monitored by Pay-Per-Use Monitor B.
Pay-Per-Use Monitors A and B capture billing-related usage data that is forwarded to a billing
management system that is hosted by Physical Server B.
Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A and the usage data is captured by Pay-Per-Use
Monitor A (1). Cloud Consumer B accesses Cloud Storage Device A via a usage and administration
portal that it uses to upload media data (2). This usage is captured by Pay-Per-Use Monitor B (3).
Pay-Per-Use Monitors A and B store collected usage data in the billing management system (4),
which is later used by the cloud provider to bill for the usage of Cloud Service A and Cloud Storage
Device A.
Each service instance of Cloud Service A requires a virtual server with 2 virtual CPUs and 4 GBs of
RAM at a package price of $2.00 for each initial invocation and an additional $0.50 for each
consecutive 60 seconds of usage. Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A twice in one
day. The two exchanges with Cloud Service A last 60 seconds and 120 seconds. For that one day, the
organization that owns Cloud Service Consumer A is billed $6.50, which it determines is incorrect.
After complaining to the cloud provider, it is discovered that the rapid provisioning system
responsible for provisioning instances of Cloud Service A is not de-provisioning Cloud Service A
when Cloud Service Consumer A indicates it has completed an exchange. Instead, Cloud Service A is
de-provisioned after a 60 second timeout that occurs after Cloud Service Consumer A is completed
with an exchange.
Storage space on Cloud Storage Device A can only be purchased in units of terabytes (TBs), with
each TB costing $1 per day. Cloud Consumer B purchases 5 TBs of storage space on day 1 and stores
5 TBs of data on days 6 and 7. Cloud Consumer B was expecting to be billed $10.00, but is billed $35.
After raising a complaint, Cloud Consumer B is informed by the cloud provider that cloud consumers
are billed based on the allocation of storage space, regardless of how much storage space they
actually use.
Which of the following statements describes a solution that can update the cloud architecture to
avoid these billing-related problems and discrepancies?
A. The Pay-as-You-Go pattern can be applied together with the Usage Monitoring pattern to
establish a monitoring and billing system capable of de-provisioning Cloud Service A instances when
they are no longer required. The Dynamic Data Normalization pattern can be applied to eliminate
any redundant data stored by Cloud Consumer A so that the amount of required storage space is
minimized.
B. The Platform Provisioning pattern can be applied to create an intelligent automation script
capable of immediately de-provisioning cloud service instances. The Redundant Storage pattern can
be applied to introduce a secondary cloud storage device for which storage space can be billed
based on actual usage.
C. The Self-Provisioning pattern can be applied to enable the organization that owns Cloud Service
Consumer B to configure how and to what extent Cloud Service A instances need to be provisioned.
The Resource Management pattern can be applied to establish a storage system that bills cloud
consumers for actual storage space usage only.
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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Nom d'Examen: HRCI (Global Professional in Human Resource)
Questions et réponses: 204 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: HRCI (Professional in Human Resources)
Questions et réponses: 165 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following factors is an incentive for company to pursue localization?
A. Market reponsiveness
B. Brand integrity
C. Product quality
D. Economies of scale
Answer: A

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NO.2 A good MBO (management by objectives) shares all of the following aspects EXCEPT:
A. Periodic feedback about objectives
B. Goals which align with corporate level goals and strategies
C. Goals are established by the supervisor/manager
D. Goals which are measurable
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following is a measure of recruiting effectiveness in the long term?
A. Cost per applicant hired
B. Quantity of applicants
C. Average time required to recruit applicants
D. Turnover of hires
Answer: D

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NO.4 A company is considering moving its production offshore to Shenzhen, China. The HR Manager is
tasked with identifying the supply and demand for skilled labor, the costs of recruiting workers, and the
turnover trends in the area. When conducting this environmental scan, which of the following types of
influences best describes these indicators?
A. Political factors
B. Economic factors
C. International factors
D. Labor market factors
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following does NOT represent a strategic financial goal for a global company?
A. Effectively manage currency exchange fluvtuations
B. Decrease cost of goods
C. New market penetration
D. Increase revenue
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following represents motivator to a culture that values asvription?
A. Defined processes and procedures
B. Diplomacy
C. Challenge
D. Network
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following factors is NOT likely an issue a human resources professional would help a
family to work through to determine the appropriateness of an international assignment for the family at
that time?
A. Is adventure and discovering new things characteristic of the family?
B. Is the family stable and relationships currently harmonious?
C. Is there a history of drug abuse in the family?
D. Are the children open to moving to the host country?
Answer: C

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NO.8 In order to develop a global competency model for global leaders at a high tech company, a HR
Manager decides to study the connotation of specific attributes across the various office locations. Which
of the following types of culture would be the LFAST valuable to evaluate in order to develop a valid and
reliable model?
A. Local culture
B. Professional culture
C. National culture
D. Corporate culture
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: GISP
Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Information Security Professional)
Questions et réponses: 659 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Certified Intrusion Analyst)
Questions et réponses: 508 Q&As

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NO.1 Adam works as a professional Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator. A project has been assigned
to him to investigate a multimedia enabled mobile phone, which is suspected to be used in a cyber crime.
Adam uses a tool, with the help of which he can recover deleted text messages, photos, and call logs of
the mobile phone. Which of the following tools is Adam using?
A. FAU
B. FTK Imager
C. Galleta
D. Device Seizure
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following tools are used to determine the hop counts of an IP packet?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. TRACERT
B. Ping
C. IPCONFIG
D. Netstat
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 Adam works as a Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator in a law firm. He has been assigned with
his first project. Adam collected all required evidences and clues. He is now required to write an
investigative report to present before court for further prosecution of the case. He needs guidelines to
write an investigative report for expressing an opinion. Which of the following are the guidelines to write
an investigative report in an efficient way?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. All ideas present in the investigative report should flow logically from facts to conclusions.
B. Opinion of a lay witness should be included in the investigative report.
C. The investigative report should be understandable by any reader.
D. There should not be any assumptions made about any facts while writing the investigative report.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 Which of the following is the default port for Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)?
A. TCP port 110
B. TCP port 25
C. TCP port 80
D. UDP port 161
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following proxy servers is also referred to as transparent proxies or forced proxies?
A. Tunneling proxy server
B. Reverse proxy server
C. Anonymous proxy server
D. Intercepting proxy server
Answer: D

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NO.6 This is a Windows-based tool that is used for the detection of wireless LANs using the IEEE 802.11a,
802.11b, and 802.11g standards. The main features of these tools are as follows: -It displays the signal
strength of a wireless network, MAC address, SSID, channel details, etc. -It is commonly used for the
following purposes:
A. War driving
B. Detecting unauthorized access points
C. Detecting causes of interference on a WLAN
D. WEP ICV error tracking
E. Making Graphs and Alarms on 802.11 Data, including Signal Strength
Answer: D

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NO.7 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. Your company has a Windows 2000based
network. You want to verify the connectivity of a host in the network. Which of the following utilities will you
use?
A. PING
B. TELNET
C. NETSTAT
D. TRACERT
Answer: A

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NO.8 Andrew works as a System Administrator for NetPerfect Inc. All client computers on the network run on
Mac OS X. The Sales Manager of the company complains that his MacBook is not able to boot. Andrew
wants to check the booting process. He suspects that an error persists in the bootloader of Mac OS X.
Which of the following is the default bootloader on Mac OS X that he should use to resolve the issue?
A. LILO
B. BootX
C. NT Loader
D. GRUB
Answer: B

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2014年8月13日星期三

Les meilleures Microsoft MB5-857 070-492 070-521-Csharp examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: MB5-857
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (C5 2010 Project)
Questions et réponses: 55 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 070-492
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Upgrade your MCPD: Web Developer 4 to MCSD: Web Applications)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 070-521-Csharp
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (UPG:Trans MCPD.NET Frmwk 3.5 Dev Skil to .NET 4 Wndws App De)
Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

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NO.1 How can project budgets be updated automatically?
Choose the 2 that apply.
A.By Project/Periodic/Update cost budget
B.When changing phase from Created to Quotation
C.By "Update cost budget" button in project lines
D.When changing phase from Quotation to Active
Answer: CD

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NO.2 Which of following statements describes the copying of project entries to project lines?
A.When you use method lines, you can select delivery date or posting date as the project line date.
B.When you use method lines, posting date will be used as the project line date.
C.When you use method lines, delivery date will be used as the project line date.
D.When you use method lines, Today will be used as the project line date.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following statements describes the Project table?
A.It is possible to handle on-account invoicing.
B.It is possible to create a credit note as a copy of an invoice.
C.It is not possible to manage multiple invoicing.
D.It is not possible to create quotations.
Answer: A

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NO.4 How do you delete projects and project lines when projects are fully delivered and invoiced?
A.By Project/Setup/Reset project
B.By Project/Table/Project and command ALT+F9
C.By Project/Periodic/Jobs/Cleanup
D.By Project/Periodic/Cleanup/Delete project
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following statements describes how revised budgets can be updated?
Choose the 2 that apply.
A.By entering the revised amount in the "Revised budget" field
B.By entering a percentage in the "Cost2%" field
C.A parameter determines how a revised budget must be updated
D.A revised budget must be updated manually
Answer: BD

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NO.6 What is the effect if you select "Delivery" in the locked field in the vendor table?
A. You cannot send any requisition to the vendor
B. You cannot post any deliveries or invoices from the vendor
C. Nothing happens. The field is for internal information only
D. You cannot send any inquiry to the vendor
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following statements describes invoicing in the Project module?
A."On account+P/L post+normal" will change the phase to "Active".
B.When you choose "Closing invoice", the module text on the invoice will be "Closing invoice".
C.Closing invoice will only invoice "On account" project lines.
D."Closing invoice" will change the phase to "Finished".
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following statements describes copying project entries to project lines?
A.Only entries with item numbers can be copied
B.Only entries regarding on-account invoices can be copied
C.Only entries that have not been copied before can be copied
D.Only entries with a cost type connected to a cost type group can be copied
Answer: D

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