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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-027
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Exadata Database Machine Administration, Software Release 11.x)
Questions et réponses: 72 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two are true about Exadata storage server alerts?
A. Metric alerts are never stateful.
B. Metrics have no thresholds set on them by default.
C. SNMP alert notifications can be sent to only one destination.
D. Metric threshold; if set, will persist across storage server reboots.
E. SMTP alert notifications must be sent to both ASR manager and Enterprise Manager Agents
Answer: D,E

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NO.2 The largest number of columns for any table is 29.

NO.3 You recently upgraded your Exadata image to the latest release; previously you were using
11.2.0.3.
At the same time, you decide to address some performance problems as follows:
You noticed increased latency for the database log writer, especially during the quarterly battery
learn cycle on the cells.
You have complaints of erratic performance from certain write-intensive applications.
Which two actions could improve performance in these areas?
A. Enable write-back flashcache by setting lunWriteCacheMode to Write Back Mode.
B. Use ALTER TABLE in the database to set CELL_FLASH_CACHE = KEEP for the tables
belonging to the affected application.
C. Configure Smart Flash Log on the cells to use some of these of the space on the cell flash
devices.
D. Configure the table belonging to the affected application using CELLCLI, to the set
CELL_FLASH_CACHE = KEEP .
E. Configure Smart Flash Log on the database server to use server flash memory.
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 No access is based on ROWID, or virtual columns.
Which two access paths will always generate either a set of “cell smart table scan” or a set of “cell
smart index scan” requested?
A. Full scans on sorted hash clustered tables executed in parallel
B. Full table scans on index organized tables executed in parallel.
C. Full table scans on heap tables executed in parallel
D. Full scans on index clustered tables executed in parallel
E. full scans on hash clustered tables executed in serially
F. fast full scans on B*Tree indexes executed in parallel
G. full index scans on B*Tree indexes executed in parallel
Answer: B,G

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8. You must drop all celldisks on all the cells in a quarter rack as part of a reconfiguration project,
to
support normal redundancy interleaving.
Select two actions that describe the operating system (O/S) account on the cells to which you
should log in, and the tool that may be used to drop the celldisks.
A. To the CELLMONITOR account using CELLCLI interactively on each cell.
B. To CELLADMIN account calling CELLCLI on all cells using DCLI
C. To either the CELIMONITOR or the CELLADMIN account calling CELLCLI on all cells using
DCLI
D. To the CELLMONITOR account calling CELLCLI on all cells using DCLI
E. To the CELLADMIN account using CELLCLI interactively on each cell
F. To either the CELLMONITOR or CELLADMIN account calling interactively on each cell
Answer: B,E

Oracle examen   1Z0-027   1Z0-027   1Z0-027 examen

NO.5 The only data types for the table are varchar (2), number, or date.

NO.6 Which three storage components are available after the standard initial Database machine
deployment?
A. The DATA_<DBM_Name> ASM diskgroup
B. The RECO_<DBM_Name> ASM diskgroup
C. Mirrored system partitions on hard disk 0 and hard disk 1
D. The DBFS_DG diskgroup with external redundancy
E. Exadata Smart Flash Cache using all of the flashdisk space
Answer: A,B,D

Oracle examen   1Z0-027   1Z0-027   1Z0-027

NO.7 Which two are true about the use of DBFS in a Database Machine environment?
A. DBFS must be used to bulk load data into a database on the Database Machine if the staging
area requires Exadata based shared storage.
B. DBFS must be used to have a POSIX compliant shared storage solution that is accessible from
the database servers on a Database Machine.
C. DBFS must be used to bulk load data into a production database on the Database Machine.
D. DBFSmust use the DBFS_DG diskgroup for any DBFS store.
E. DBFS must be used to have a POSIX-compliant Exadata-based shared storage solution.
Answer: A,B

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5. Which tool will provide you with diagnostic information for all the software log, trace files, and
OS
information on Database Machine?
A. dbmcheck.sh
B. diagget.sh
C. oswatcher
D. adrci
E. Enterprise Manager
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-027   1Z0-027   certification 1Z0-027
6. You have a partitioned database grid on an X3-2 full rack with two four-node RAC clusters
called
CLUSA and CLUSB. The storage grid, however, has not been partitioned.
Which files on which servers must be modified after connecting an Exadata storage full expansion
rack to your X3-2 Exadata Database Machine on the InfiniBand network so that the cells on the
expansion rack are added to the storage grid?
A. The CELLINIT.ORA files on database servers in CLUSA
B. The CELLIP .ORA files on the database servers in CLUSA
C. The CELLINIT.ORA files on the database servers in CLUSB
D. The CELLIP .ORA files on all existing and newly added Exadata storage servers.
E. The CELLIP .ORA files on the database servers in CLUSB
Answer: B,E

Oracle   1Z0-027   1Z0-027 examen   1Z0-027
7. A read-only application is in development and is using a test database on a Database Machine.
You are examining SQL statements from this application in an attempt to determine which ones
will benefit from the Exadata Smart scan capability.
The following is true about the tables used by the application:
1. The data for the tables has just been loaded.
2. There are no applications accessing the tables currently.
3. None of the indexes are compressed or reverse key indexes.
4. The tables use the default organization type data.

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-478
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle SOA Suite 11g Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two approaches are valid when using dynamic partner links in a BPEL process?
A. A WSDL file, which contains multiple services that use the same portType, is available at design
time, but the decision to determine which service is used can only be made at runtime.
B. When the BPEL process is designed, the endpoint URL of the WSDL file is known but the services
and port types are not known.
C. When the BPEL process is designed, the services and port types of the WSDL file are known but
the endpoint URI is not known.
D. A WSDL file, which contains multiple services that use different portTypes, is available at design
time, but the decision to determine which server us used can only be made at runtime.
Answer: A,C

Oracle   certification 1Z0-478   certification 1Z0-478   certification 1Z0-478
Explanation:
A (not D):How To Create a Dynamic Partner Link at Design Time for Use at Runtime
To create a dynamic partner link at design time for use at runtime:
etc
C (not B):The BPEL specification mandates that only the partner endpoint reference (EPR) can be
changed dynamically. In BPEL terms, only the partnerRole of a partner link element can have a new
value assigned. The myRole value doesn't change after the BPEL has been deployed.
Note: *Dynamic Partner Links and Dynamic Addressing During the design-time of an application,
you may need to configure certain services whose endpoints (addresses) are not known beforehand,
or it may be necessary to change an endpoint reference while the application is running. The
Dynamic Partner link feature allows you to dynamically assign an endpoint reference to the partner
link. This means that you can use onepartner link for subsequent calls to different web-services
(provided that the services use the same interface). *For successful deployment of the process, a
partner link should be completely defined. When you deploy the project, the WSDL file for the
partner link should contain and define both the abstract and the concrete information for the
partner link, including address and port, though later the concrete information can be changed
independently from the WSDL file.

NO.2 Composite X invokes an outbound DB adapter to write data to a database table. You have
configured JCA at the binding component as follows:
<property name = "jca.retry.count" type = "xs:int" many = "false" override = "may" > 2</property>
<property name = "jca.retry.interval" type = "xs:int" many = "false" override = "may" > 2</property>
You have also modeled a modeled a fault policy to retry the invocation three times in case of
remoteFault as follows:
<retryCount>3<retryCount>
<retryInterval>3<retryInterval>
Which result describes what happens when the database that is being accessed by the above
binding component goes down?
A. The invocation is retrieved for a total of two times every two seconds. Fault policy retries are
ignored.
B. The invocation is retried for a total of six times every three seconds.
C. The invocation is retried for a total of six times every two seconds.
D. The fault policy retries occur within the JCA retries. So two JCA retries are executed two seconds
apart. Within each JCA retry, three fault policy retries are executed three seconds apart.
E. The JCA retries occur within the fault policy retries. So three fault policy retries are executed
three seconds apart. Within each fault policy retry, two JCA retries are executed two seconds apart.
Answer: E

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Explanation:
Note: *Global retries for any error handling are returned to the BPEL Receive activity instance, for
example, or, more generally, to the point at which the transaction started. Such a retry could occur
if there was an error such as a temporary database fault. The default retry count is by default
indefinite, or specified in the jca.retry.count property.
*Properties you can specify in the composite.xml file include:
/jca.retry.count
Specifies the maximum number of retries before rejection. Again, specifying this value is a pre-
requisite to specifying the other property values.
/jca.retry.interval
Specifies the time interval between retries (measured in seconds.)
*A remoteFault is also thrown inside an activity. It is thrown because the invocation fails. For
example, a SOAP fault is returned by the remote service.

NO.3 Which two features are provided by decision tables?
A. Sets of input data can be bucketed and reviewed for gaps.
B. Data sets can be reviewed for conflicts.
C. Data can be used for only one rule evaluation.
D. A rule evaluation can be used only to enter new output data.
Answer: A,B

certification Oracle   1Z0-478   certification 1Z0-478
Explanation:
After you create a Decision Table there are operations that you may want to perform on the
Decision Table, including the following:
(A)Find and fix gaps in a Decision Table (B)Finding and resolving conflicts between rules in a
Decision Table Compact or split cells in a Decision Table Merge a condition or split a condition in a
Decision Table
A: *Compact the Decision Table
In this step you compact the rules to merge from eighteen rules to nine rules. This automatically
eliminates the rules that are not needed and preserves the no gap, no conflict properties for the
Decision Table.
*The Conditions area in a Decision Table includes one or more condition rows. Each condition row
has a condition expression and, for each rule, a condition cell. A condition expression is an
expression that you build in Rules Designer. The condition expression is often a fact property or a
function result, but it can be any expression that has a type that can be associated with a bucketset.
B:A Decision Table displays multiple related rules in a single spreadsheet-style view. In Rules
Designer a Decision Table presents a collection of related business rules with condition rows, rules,
and actions presented in a tabular form that is easy to understand. Business users can compare cells
and their values at a glance and can use Decision Table rule analysis features by clicking icons and
selecting values in Rules Designer to help identify and correct conflicting or missing cases.

NO.4 Identify two features of Oracle BAM.
A. Enterprise Manager's monitoring capabilities are central to Oracle BAM's ability to monitor
performance indicators.
B. You can analyze and present Information from activities spanning multiple systems and
applications.
C. Rich browser-based dashboards provide visibility into current values of key performance
indicators (KPIs).
D. There is a built-in trouble ticket system to track assignment and completion of corrective actions.
Answer: A,C

Oracle   1Z0-478   1Z0-478 examen   1Z0-478 examen   certification 1Z0-478   1Z0-478
Explanation:
Note: *Oracle Business Activity Monitoring (Oracle BAM) gives business executives the ability to
monitor their business services and processes in the enterprise, to correlate KPIs down to the actual
business process themselves, and most important, to change business processes quickly or to take
corrective action if the business environment changes.

NO.5 A partner needs to access services that are defined in one of your Service Composite
Architecture (SCA) applications via a web service interface. Which approach (and accompanying
reasoning) describes a loosely coupled and robust solution?
A. Use Oracle Service Bus to provide an Interface layer over your SCA application. This enables you
to hide the locations of your SCA application, perform load-balancing across those endpoints, and
provide the ability to define service level agreements to help ensure that you are meeting your
contractual obligations to the partner.
B. Use the Mediator component to provide a web service interface to your SCA application. This
arrives you the flexibility of using the industry standard XSLT technology to perform translation and
transformations.
C. Use Oracle Service Bus to provide an interface layer over your SCA application. This enables you
to "skin" your SCA application with a web service interface and still provide a robust experience to
the partner.
D. Allow the partner simply to connect directly to the SCA application. This provides the best
performance and helps keep the partner happy.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Identify two correct descriptions of Oracle Web Services Manager (OWSM).
A. It enables you to externalize web services security from the applications youbuild.
B. It manages policies in a distributed policy manager that serves as a single policy enforcement
point.
C. Use security and management events, captured by OWSM agents, are displayed using Oracle
BAM.
D. It supplies predefined security policies that enable declarative security and management
definition.
E. It uses Oracle Event Processing (OEP) to determine when security violations have occurred.
Answer: B,C

Oracle   certification 1Z0-478   1Z0-478   1Z0-478
Explanation:
Note: *Oracle WSM allows companies to (1) centrally define and store declarative policies applied
to the multiple web services making up a SOA infrastructure, (2) locally enforce security and
management policies through configurable agents, and (3) monitor runtime security events such as
failed authentication or authorization.
*Oracle Web Services Manager offers a comprehensive and easy-to-use solution for policy
management and security of service infrastructure. It provides visibility and control of the policies
through a centralized administration interface offered by Oracle Enterprise Manager.

NO.7 You expand a business rule component that a colleague added to the BPEL process. You see an
Assign element named Facts_To_Rule_Service.
Which statement is true bout this Assign element?
A. It was added automatically based on entries that your colleague made in the dialog box that
approved when the business rule component was added to the BPEL model.
B. Your colleague manually added this Assign element after adding the business rule component to
the BPEL Model.
C. This Assign element was automatically added when your colleague manually addedthe
corresponding Rule_Service_To_Facts assign to the BPEL model.
D. You can delete this Assign because it was created for documentation purposes only.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Note: *Facts_To_Rule_Service: Assigns the facts to a variable.

NO.8 When more than one policy is attached to a policy subject, the combination of policies needs
to be valid. Which statement is true about the valid combination of policies for a policy subject?
A. Only one MTOM policy can be attached to a policy subject.
B. More than one Reliable Messaging policy can be attached to a policy subject.
C. Both a Reliable Messaging policy and a WS-Addressing policy cannot be attached to the same
policy subject.
D. Only one security policy can be attached to a policy subject.
Answer: A

Oracle examen   1Z0-478   1Z0-478   1Z0-478   1Z0-478
Explanation:
Note:
*Within a SOA composite application, you must attach the Oracle WS-MTOM policy to service and
reference binding components to receive and send MTOM (MIME binary) attachments within
Oracle SOA Suite.
*Message Transmission Optimization Mechanism (MTOM)
Ensures that attachments are in MTOM format. This format enables binary data to be sent to and
from web services. This reduces the transmission size on the wire.
*ReliabilityPolicy
Supports the WS-Reliable Messaging protocol. This guarantees the end-to-end delivery of
messages.
* Addressing Policy Verifies that simple object access protocol (SOAP) messages include
WS-Addressing headers in conformance with the WS-Addressing specification. Transport-level data
is included in the XML message rather than relying on the network-level transport to convey this
information.

NO.9 In your solution, a web service client needs to invoke a series of three web services in support
of a single transaction. The third web service needs the identity of the original web service client.
Which statement describes how the identity is made available by Oracle Web Services Manager
(OWSM)?
A. The transaction manager accesses an internal table that maintains credentials used to invoke
each individual web service in the chain.
B. Each web service in the chain does its own authentication so the third web service handles its
own identity checking.
C. OWSM sets the user in the Java Authentication and Authorization (JAAS) Subject when the first
web service successfully authenticates, and the Java Subject is used by subsequent web services to
access the identity.
D. OWSM stores a SAML token from the first web service invocation in a database table, and that
table is accessed by subsequent web services in the chain to retrieve identity.
Answer: D

Oracle   certification 1Z0-478   1Z0-478   certification 1Z0-478
Explanation:
Oracle Web Services Manager is a component of the Oracle Enterprise Manager Fusion Middleware
Control, a run-time framework that provides centralized management and governance of Oracle
SOA Suite environments and applications. You create and configureOracle Web Services Manager
policies in Oracle Enterprise Manager, and those policies are persisted in a policy store (a database
is recommended). Oracle Web Services Manager lets you define policies against an LDAP directory
and generate standard security tokens (such as SAML tokens) to propagate identities across multiple
Web services used in a single transaction.

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Code d'Examen: 1z1-061
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 12c: SQL Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

1z1-061 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/1z1-061.html

NO.1 View the Exhibit for the structure of the student and faculty tables.
You need to display the faculty name followed by the number of students handled by the faculty at
the base location.
Examine the following two SQL statements:
Which statement is true regarding the outcome?
A. Only statement 1 executes successfully and gives the required result.
B. Only statement 2 executes successfully and gives the required result.
C. Both statements 1 and 2 execute successfully and give different results.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 execute successfully and give the same required result.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Evaluate the following SQL statement:
Which statement is true regarding the outcome of the above query?
A. It executes successfully and displays rows in the descending order of PROMO_CATEGORY .
B. It produces an error because positional notation cannot be used in the order by clause with set
operators.
C. It executes successfully but ignores the order by clause because it is not located at the end of the
compound statement.
D. It produces an error because the order by clause should appear only at the end of a compound
query-that is, with the last select statement.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which three tasks can be performed using SQL functions built into Oracle Database?
A. Displaying a date in a nondefault format
B. Finding the number of characters in an expression
C. Substituting a character string in a text expression with a specified string
D. Combining more than two columns or expressions into a single column in the output
Answer: A,B,C

Oracle   1z1-061   1z1-061   certification 1z1-061

NO.4 In the customers table, the CUST_CITY column contains the value 'Paris' for the
CUST_FIRST_NAME 'Abigail'.
Evaluate the following query:
What would be the outcome?
A. Abigail PA
B. Abigail Pa
C. Abigail IS
D. An error message
Answer: B

Oracle examen   1z1-061   1z1-061   certification 1z1-061

NO.5 You need to create a table for a banking application. One of the columns in the table has the
following requirements:
1. You want a column in the table to store the duration of the credit period.
2) The data in the column should be stored in a format such that it can be easily added and
subtracted with date data type without using conversion functions.
3) The maximum period of the credit provision in the application is 30 days.
4) The interest has to be calculated for the number of days an individual has taken a credit for.
Which data type would you use for such a column in the table?
A. DATE
B. NUMBER
C. TIMESTAMP
D. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
E. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
Answer: D

certification Oracle   1z1-061   certification 1z1-061

NO.6 Which normal form is a table in if it has no multi-valued attributes and no partial
dependencies?
A. First normal form
B. Second normal form
C. Third normal form
D. Fourth normal form
Answer: B

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NO.7 Examine the structure proposed for the transactions table:
Which two statements are true regarding the creation and storage of data in the above table
structure?
A. The CUST_STATUS column would give an error.
B. The TRANS_VALIDITY column would give an error.
C. The CUST_STATUS column would store exactly one character.
D. The CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT column would not be able to store decimal values.
E. The TRANS_VALIDITY column would have a maximum size of one character.
F. The TRANS_DATE column would be able to store day, month, century, year, hour, minutes,
seconds, and fractions of seconds
Answer: B,C

certification Oracle   1z1-061 examen   1z1-061 examen   1z1-061 examen   certification 1z1-061   1z1-061 examen
Explanation:
VARCHAR2(size)Variable-length character data (A maximum size must be specified:
minimum size is 1; maximum size is 4, 000.)
CHAR [(size)] Fixed-length character data of length size bytes (Default and minimum size
is 1; maximum size is 2, 000.)
NUMBER [(p, s)] Number having precision p and scale s (Precision is the total number of
decimal digits and scale is the number of digits to the right of the decimal point; precision
can range from 1 to 38, and scale can range from -84 to 127.)
DATE Date and time values to the nearest second between January 1, 4712 B.C., and
December 31, 9999 A.D.

NO.8 Examine the types and examples of relationships that follow:
1.One-to-one a) Teacher to students
2.One-to-many b) Employees to Manager
3.Many-to-one c) Person to SSN
4.Many-to-many d) Customers to products
Which option indicates the correctly matched relationships?
A. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, and 4-d
B. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, and 4-b
C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, and 4-d
D. 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, and 4-c
Answer: C

Oracle   1z1-061   certification 1z1-061   1z1-061 examen   1z1-061   1z1-061

NO.9 View the Exhibit and evaluate the structure and data in the CUST_STATUS table.
You issue the following SQL statement:
Which statement is true regarding the execution of the above query?
A. It produces an error because the AMT_SPENT column contains a null value.
B. It displays a bonus of 1000 for all customers whose AMT_SPENT is less than CREDIT_LIMIT.
C. It displays a bonus of 1000 for all customers whose AMT_SPENT equals CREDIT_LIMIT, or
AMT_SPENT is null.
D. It produces an error because the TO_NUMBER function must be used to convert the result of the
NULLIF function before it can be used by the NVL2 function.
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1z1-061 examen   1z1-061   1z1-061   1z1-061   1z1-061
Explanation:
The NULLIF Function The NULLIF function tests two terms for equality. If they are equal the function
returns a null, else it returns the first of the two terms tested. The NULLIF function takes two
mandatory parameters of any data type. The syntax is NULLIF(ifunequal, comparison_term), where
the parameters ifunequal and comparison_term are compared. If they are identical, then NULL is
returned. If they differ, the ifunequal parameter is returned.

NO.10 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the product, component, and PDT_COMP
tables.
In product table, PDTNO is the primary key.
In component table, COMPNO is the primary key.
In PDT_COMP table, <PDTNO, COMPNO) is the primary key, PDTNO is the foreign key referencing
PDTNO in product table and COMPNO is the foreign key referencing the COMPNO in component
table.
You want to generate a report listing the product names and their corresponding component names,
if the component names and product names exist.
Evaluate the following query:
SQL>SELECT pdtno, pdtname, compno, compname
FROM product _____________ pdt_comp
USING (pdtno) ____________ component USING (compno)
WHERE compname IS NOT NULL;
Which combination of joins used in the blanks in the above query gives the correct output?
A. JOIN; JOIN
B. FULL OUTER JOIN; FULL OUTER JOIN
C. RIGHT OUTER JOIN; LEFT OUTER JOIN
D. LEFT OUTER JOIN; RIGHT OUTER JOIN
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: UM0-411
Nom d'Examen: OMG (Omg OCRES - Advanced Exam)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 What is one difference between service level software and application level software?
A. Service level software always provides real-time guarantees on execution time, while application level
software does not.
B. Application level software always forms the core "building bricks" of software systems while service
level software is always portable across different hardware.
C. Application level software provides the functionality and behavior required of the system while service
level software provides application-independent functionality.
D. Service level software always provides the same set of operations regardless of environment, while
application level software provide a consistent programming interface.
Answer: C

OMG   UM0-411   UM0-411 examen

NO.2 What is the difference between static and dynamic variables?
A. Static variables are used to save memory space in lieu of dynamic variables.
B. Static variables have global visibility while dynamic variables are restricted to individual components.
C. Static variables have a set value for the lifetime of the program, while dynamic variables can change
value as determined by the program.
D. Static variables exist for as long as the program runs, while dynamic variables are created and
destroyed by the program and scoping rules.
Answer: D

OMG examen   UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.3 Which is an example of a performance modeling tool?
A. spreadsheet
B. discrete event simulator
C. transaction rate analyzer
D. software configuration manager
Answer: B

OMG   certification UM0-411   UM0-411   certification UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.4 For which schedule is the task priority computed using both the tasks execution time and its deadline?
A. Least Laxity First
B. Shortest Job First
C. Deadline Monotonic
D. Shortest Remaining Time
Answer:A

OMG examen   UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.5 What are two characteristics of manual transformation in the MDA? (Choose two.)
A. It requires a record of the manual transformation.
B. It is a radical departure from traditional software design methods.
C. It makes an explicit distinction between a platform independent model and the transformed platform
specific model.
D. It adds very little to standard software design practices in use today, but provides a method to
incorporate legacy software under the MDA name.
Answer:AC

OMG   certification UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.6 Which statement is true about an interoperability transformation?
A. It is a transformation applied to interoperability connectors.
B. It includes transformation specifications for two different platforms.
C. It is a transformation that distributes a PSM to a multiprocessor system.
D. It transforms two PIMs to a PSM that is interoperable on a single platform.
Answer: B

OMG   UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.7 A Rate Monotonic Schedule sets task priorities according to what?
A. task laxity
B. task deadline
C. system mode
D. length of a task's period
Answer: D

certification OMG   UM0-411   UM0-411 examen   UM0-411 examen

NO.8 Which statement is true about the feasibility of a Rate Monotonic Schedule?
A. It CANNOT be determined precisely.
B. It can be determined only for the highest priority task.
C. It can be determined for any set of task deadlines with bounded execution times.
D. It can be determined for any number of periodic tasks with bounded execution times.
Answer: D

certification OMG   UM0-411   UM0-411 examen   certification UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.9 Which two most accurately describe the added value of using MDA based transformations? (Choose
two.)
A. PIM/PSM distinction
B. PIM/PSM template usage
C. Transformation recording
D. Transformation verification
E. Transformation automation
Answer:AC

OMG   certification UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411   certification UM0-411

NO.10 Which statement is NOT true about a PSM?
A. It may abstract away some of the platform details
B. It always includes a detailed model of the platform.
C. It must always be able to produce an implementation.
D. It must always include all details necessary to produce an implementation.
Answer: B

OMG   UM0-411   UM0-411 examen   UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.11 Programs devised using functional structuring are based on what?
A. abstract machines organized in layers
B. data processed by individual statements
C. functions operating on shared structures
D. independent functions organized in parallel
Answer:A

OMG examen   UM0-411 examen   UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411 examen

NO.12 Earliest deadline scheduling is a form of what?
A. preemptive static scheduling
B. deadline monotonic scheduling
C. non-preemptive static scheduling
D. priority-based preemptive dynamic scheduling
Answer: D

OMG   UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.13 What must include all of the information needed to construct a system and to put it into operation?
A. Platform
B. Viewpoint
C. Implementation
D. Platform Specific Model
Answer: C

OMG   UM0-411   UM0-411 examen

NO.14 How does a pure tree decomposition differ from a general hierarchical decomposition?
A. Different modules share standard subroutines.
B. Leaf-functions are shared between many different modules.
C. 'Building-brick' functions are NOT shared between modules.
D. System branch prediction can be used to increase performance.
Answer: C

OMG   UM0-411 examen   UM0-411

NO.15 What transformation method is a component-based product line architecture most likely to use?
A. QVT
B. Manual
C. Patterns
D. Factoring
E. Automatic
Answer: E

OMG examen   certification UM0-411   UM0-411 examen   certification UM0-411   UM0-411 examen

NO.16 What does performance engineering start with?
A. creating a predictable system architecture
B. choosing an appropriately predictable scheduling policy
C. defining the performance requirements for the target system
D. defining a set of performance tests to determine that requirements will be met
Answer: C

OMG   UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.17 Which statement is true about a PIM?
A. It is always an application-level model.
B. It is sometimes called a domain model.
C. It may be transformed to a PSM using cascaded transformations.
D. It is a set of subsystems that provides functionality through interfaces.
Answer: C

OMG examen   certification UM0-411   certification UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411 examen

NO.18 Which two statements correctly describe the MDA Pattern? (Choose two.)
A. It includes a PIM that is independent of all platforms.
B. A PIM on one context may be a PSM in another context.
C. It includes a PIM that is independent of a specific class of platforms.
D. Once transformed into a PSM, a model will always be viewed as a PSM.
Answer: BC

certification OMG   UM0-411   UM0-411   UM0-411   certification UM0-411

NO.19 A 'strongly typed' programming language is subject to which two rules? (Choose two.)
A. Every data object must belong to one unique type.
B. All data objects are strongly associated to a local scope.
C. Data object names must be in strong Hungarian notation.
D. Data objects must be of the same type during assignments unless actively overridden.
Answer:AD

OMG examen   certification UM0-411   UM0-411   certification UM0-411   UM0-411

NO.20 Creating rate groups can produce which effect?
A. reducing processor load variations
B. ensuring that time constraints are met
C. decreasing the overhead of task dispatch
D. simplifying system maintainability when requirements change
Answer: C

OMG   UM0-411   UM0-411

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Code d'Examen: 050-653
Nom d'Examen: Novell (Certified Novell Administrator 5.1)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 .Type the command to replace the directory path in the second search position to
equal
FS1_SYSPUBLIC?
Answer: MAP S2:=FS1_SYS:PUBLIC

NO.2 Which extension represents the certificate license files?
Answer: NLF

Novell examen   050-653   050-653

NO.3 .What is accomplished by adding NAL.EXE to a login script?
A. It creates an application object
B. It associates application objects
C. It makes Application Launcher Window available
D. It installs the application and completes the discovery
Answer: C

Novell   certification 050-653   050-653   050-653   certification 050-653   050-653 examen

NO.4 .Identify the benefits provided by NDPS. (Choose Three)
A. Improves network performance
B. Allows for unidirectional communications
C. Reduces network printing problems
D. Allows administrators to create and configure printer objects manually
E. Reduces administration cost
Answer: A,C,E

Novell   050-653   certification 050-653

NO.5 .Which statement is true regarding small block sizes?
A. Small block sizes are best for large database records.
B. Small block sizes should be used if you enable blocksuballocation.
C. The server will require less memory to track the File Allocation Table.
D. The server will require more memory to track the Directory Entry Table.
Answer: D

Novell examen   050-653   050-653

NO.6 .Which statement is true of a public access printer?
A. A public access printer has high security
B. A public access printer has a corresponding NDS object
C. A public access printer provides plug-and-print capabilities
D. A public access printer provides tighter administrative control
Answer: C

Novell   certification 050-653   050-653 examen

NO.7 .Which policy package must be applied if you want to configure a workstation to
have the same settings no matter who logs into the workstation?
A. User policy package
B. Group policy package
C. Container policy package
D. Workstation policy package
Answer: D

certification Novell   050-653   050-653   050-653

NO.8 Application Launcher Explorer is an alternative to which Application Launcher
component?
A. snAppShot
B. Application Launcher Window
C. Application Launcher snap-in
D. Application Launcher Directory
Answer: B

Novell examen   050-653   050-653   050-653

NO.9 .If NAL and Workstation Manager are not installed, then which method of registering
workstations can be used?
A. Z.E.N. work schedule
B. Login script
C. NetWare Application Launcher
D. Remote
Answer: B

certification Novell   certification 050-653   050-653

NO.10 .Which toolbar buttons are used in the remote control viewing window? (Choose
Three)
A. Start button
B. Accelerated mode button
C. Full screen button
D. Navigation button
E. Application switcher button
Answer: A,D,E

certification Novell   certification 050-653   certification 050-653   050-653

NO.11 .Which statement is true?
A. Rights for directories and files are the same.
B. File system security and NDS security are dependent upon each other.
C. NDS security regulates who can access files and directories in volumes.
D. A user does not need file system rights to edit files within the directory as
long as the user has the RW NDS object right to the volume.
Answer: A

certification Novell   certification 050-653   certification 050-653

NO.12 .Which symbols initiate the external execution of an EXE file in a login script?
(Choose two)
A. *
B. #
C. @
D. %
E. ''
Answer: B,C

Novell   050-653 examen   050-653   050-653 examen

NO.13 Which roles can be assigned to a controlled access printer? (Choose Three)
A. User
B. Manager
C. Operator
D. Workstation
E. Administrator
Answer: A,B,C

Novell   certification 050-653   certification 050-653   certification 050-653   050-653   certification 050-653

NO.14 .Which utilities salvage and purge files? (Choose Two)
A. FLAG
B. FILER
C. NCOPY
D. RENDIR
E. NetWare Administrator
Answer: B,E

Novell examen   050-653 examen   050-653   certification 050-653   050-653 examen

NO.15 .Which attribute prevents files from being migrated?
A. Co
B. Dc
C. Dm
D. Ec
E. Ic
F. Nc
G. HCSS
Answer: C

certification Novell   certification 050-653   050-653

NO.16 There are two key files used when utilizing UIMPORT. Which UIMPORT file describes
how data is imported into the directory?
A. Data
B. Control
C. Form
D. Import
E. Fields
Answer: B

certification Novell   050-653   050-653

NO.17 What does the following command do?
NDIR/FO/AC AFT 5-3-95
A. Lists directories created on or after 5-3-95
B. Lists directories and files by user AFT created on 5-3-95
C. List only files created by user AFT on 5-3-95
D. Lists files accesses after 5-3-95
Answer: D

Novell   certification 050-653   050-653   certification 050-653   050-653 examen

NO.18 .If you have an ASCII delimited file containing all users named and values, which
utility would be the fastest to use to add them to the NDS database?
A. NETADMIN
B. NetWare Administrator
C. UIMPORT
D. Console One
Answer: C

Novell   050-653   050-653   certification 050-653

NO.19 .Which statement about NDS security is true?
A. NDS security does not use inheritance.
B. All rights flow from NDS to the file system
C. The supervisor object right cannot be blocked by an IRF
D. NDS security has two distinct sets of right object and property
E. NDS security is used to manage access to NDS objects, but not their properties.
Answer: D

Novell examen   050-653 examen   050-653

NO.20 .Property rights assigned using the Selected Properties option will not be
inherited at a lower level in the tree unless the ________ property right is granted?
A. Read
B. Write
C. Compare
D. Inheritable
E. Add/Remove self
Answer: D

Novell examen   050-653   certification 050-653   certification 050-653

NO.21 .Which symbol initiates the external execution of an EXE file and allows the
reminder of the login script to execute while the external executable loads?
A. #
B. @
C. %
D. *
E. REM
F. BREAK
G. MAP
Answer: B

Novell   050-653   050-653 examen   050-653

NO.22 .Which utilities allow you to copy a directory structure while maintaining all
NetWare information?(ChooseThree)
A. NetWare Administrator
B. NCOPY
C. FILER
D. DOS COPY command
E. NDIR
Answer: A,B,C

Novell examen   050-653 examen   050-653 examen   050-653

NO.23 .Which frame types are set as default by the NetWare 5 installation wizard? (Choose
Two)
A. TCP/IP
B. IPX/SPX
C. Ethernet_II
D. Ethernet_Snap
E. Ethernet_802.2
F. Ethernet_802.3
Answer: C,E

Novell   certification 050-653   certification 050-653   050-653   050-653

NO.24 .A user has received the supervisor right to the server object. As the network
administrator of your company,
which of the following options would be worth checking to help determine where
this Supervisor right to the server is coming from? (Choose Two)
A. Check to see what effective rights [Root] has to the server object.
B. Check to see what effective rights the user object's has to the server object.
C. If the user is member of the group, check to see if that group has Supervisor
rights to volume
SYS.
D. Check to see if any inherited Rights Filters have been placed on the container
that the server object resides in.
E. Check to see if that user has been granted explicit trustee assignment to the
directory map object
Answer: A,B

Novell   050-653   050-653   050-653   certification 050-653

NO.25 .What functionality does the Help Requestor provide?
A. Provide access to online documentation
B. Provide assistance with hardware installation.
C. Provides assistance with printer configuration
D. Provides user with contact information for reporting workstation problems.
Answer: D

Novell examen   050-653   050-653

NO.26 .In which policy package or packages is the search policy contained?
A. User policy package
B. Container policy package
C. Workstation policy package
D. User and workstation policy packages
E. Workstation and container policy packages
Answer: B

Novell   050-653 examen   050-653   certification 050-653   050-653 examen

NO.27 Which rights are required to open and read a file? (Choose Two)
A. R
B. W
C. C
D. E
E. Microsoft
F. F
G. A
Answer: A,F

certification Novell   050-653 examen   050-653   050-653

NO.28 .Which Novell product will launch an application from server B when the primary
application server is down?
A. Monitor
B. Profiles
C. snAppshot
D. Application Launcher
Answer: D

Novell examen   certification 050-653   050-653 examen

NO.29 Type the command to map the next available drive letter to FS1_SYS?
Answer: MAP N FS1_SYS

NO.30 .Which statements describe Novell Distributed Print Services? (Choose Three)
A. Users can submit print jobs directly to printers
B. Plug-and-print access printing is not available
C. Reported events are limited only by a printer's capability.
D. Plug-and-print options are available for installing public access printers.
Answer: A,C,D

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Code d'Examen: 050-684
Nom d'Examen: Novell (Novell eDirectory Tools and Diagnostics )
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

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NO.1 You are the system administrator for the SLC DigitalAir container. You are creating some
new user objects in this container. Which statements are true regarding the eDirectory
rights for these new users? (Choose two.)
A. The rights for the SLC.DigitalAir container has to itself will affect the new users.
B. The default rights granted to the new users depends on the tool used to create them.
C. The new users will not have any eDirectory rights unless they are manually assigned.
D. Tue new users will not have any eDirectory rights unless they are created with a template.
E. The schema information for the user class will grant the new users some default eDirectory
rights.
F. The new users will not have any eDirectory rights unless they are created with a template or
have rights manually assigned.
Answer: B, F

Novell   050-684   050-684   certification 050-684   certification 050-684

NO.2 Which statements are true regarding subordinate reference replicas? (Choose two.)
A. Subordinate references only contain the partition root object.
B. Subordinate references link a parent partition with its child partition.
C. Subordinate references can be manually created by the administrator.
D. A subordinate reference can be changed to be a master replica without losing information.
E. Subordinate references should be removed to help reduce traffic across the communication
channel.
Answer: A, B

Novell   050-684   050-684

NO.3 Which statements are true regarding subordinate reference replicas? (Choose two.)
A. There can be multiple subordinate references per partition.
B. Subordinate references must reside on every server in the tree.
C. Subordinate references link a parent partition with its child partition.
D. A subordinate reference can be changed to be a master replica without losing information.
E. Subordinate references should be removed to help reduce traffic across the communication
channel.
Answer: A C

Novell examen   050-684   050-684   050-684

NO.4 You are the eDirector administrator for the DigitalAir-Tree tree. You would like to move
some containers in your tree to align the tree structure more closely to the physical
structure of your organization. Given the information in the exhibits, without manually
changing any partition boundaries or replica placement, which containers can be moved?
A. Only the TICKETING container
B. The SLC, SYD and LGA containers
C. The SYD, LGA and CUSTSVC containers
D. All containers except DigitalAir-Tree and DigitalAir
E. The CUSTSVC, FLIGHTOPS, SYD and TICKETING containers.
Answer: A

Novell   050-684   certification 050-684   050-684 examen   050-684

NO.5 You have an eDirectory tree that contains 7 servers. Each server holds replicas as shown in
the exhibit. From the information given in the exhibit, which servers can you use to make
modifications to the schema partition?
A. All servers
B. The DA1 server only
C. All servers except DA7
D. The DA1, DA2 and DA6 servers only
Answer: D

certification Novell   050-684   050-684   certification 050-684   050-684

NO.6 Which aspects of the eDirectory environment are defined by the schema? (Choose 3.)
A. The roles of different replica types
B. The syntax of the login script attribute
C. The steps used to process obituaries
D. The types of objects that can be created
E. The information required for an object to exist
F. The number of associations allowed for an object
G. The total number of replicas that can exist on a server
Answer: D, E, F

Novell   certification 050-684   050-684   050-684   050-684

NO.7 You are using the eMBox client to log into a server. The information required for login is
as follows:
- server's IP address is 10.0.0.1
- port number is 8008
- context for admin is slc.digitalair
-password is novell.
Given this information, what is the appropriate syntax to login from the eMBox client?
A. login 10.0.0.1:8008; admin.slc.digitalair.novell:
B. login admin.slc.digitalair:novell 10.0.0.1:8008
C. login 10.0.0.1:8008 admin.slc.digitalair novell
D. login 10.0.0.1:8008 -u admin.slc.digitalair -w novell -n
E. login -s 10.0.0.1 -p 8008 -u admin.slc.digitalair -w novell -n
Answer: E

certification Novell   certification 050-684   050-684   050-684   certification 050-684

NO.8 Which statements are true regarding transitive synchronization? (Choose two.)
A. The transitive vector attribute is not a synchronized attribute.
B. Transitive synchronization updates replicas in a sequential order.
C. The transitive vector attribute is located on any partition root object.
D. Transitive synchronization does not require a server to be able to talk with every server in the
replica ring.
E. Transitive synchronization allows subordinate references to participate in a normal replica
synchronization.
Answer: C, D

Novell examen   050-684 examen   050-684 examen   050-684

NO.9 In an eDirectory 8.7 environment, the capabilities of which utilities are included in
iManager? (Choose two.)
A. DSVIEW
B. DSTRACE
C. DSMERGE
D. DSREPAIR
E. DSBROWSE
Answer: C, D

certification Novell   050-684   certification 050-684   certification 050-684   050-684   050-684 examen

NO.10 RThomas is logging in to the DA4 server. The DA4 server does not hold a replica of the
partition where RThomas' user object exists. An external reference is created on the DA4
server containing information about RThomas user object. On the server with a replica of
the partition containing RThomas eDirectory also attempts to create an attribute pointing
to the DA4 server.
What is the name of this attribute?
A. Janitor
B. Obituary
C. Backlink
D. Flat cleaner
E. External reference
Answer: C

Novell   050-684 examen   050-684

NO.11 Which aspects of the eDirectory environment are defined by the schema? (Choose 3.)
A. The steps used to process obituaries
B. The types of objects that can be created
C. The number of objects allowed in a partition
D. The locations an object can exist in the tree
E. What types of replicas can be held on a server
F. The total number of replicas that can be held by a server
G. The information that must be entered and maintained for specific objects
Answer: B, D, G

Novell   050-684 examen   certification 050-684   050-684   050-684 examen

NO.12 If a Directory System Agent cannot fulfill a request of a Directory User Agent, which X.500
directory component passes the information to another Directory System Agent?
A. The Directory Access Protocol
B. The Directory System Protocol
C. The Directory Information Tree
D. The Directory Information Database
E. The Directory Information Shadowing Protocol
Answer: B

Novell   050-684   050-684   050-684

NO.13 Which are default settings for an eDirectory 8.7 tree structure? (Choose 3.)
A. A Single Organization Unit object is created.
B. Three Organizational Unit objects are created.
C. eDirectory keeps the tree as one single partition.
D. The database if replicated to the first three servers running eDirectory.
E. The Admin, Server and Volume objects are created as children of [Root].
Answer: A, C, D

Novell   certification 050-684   050-684   certification 050-684

NO.14 Which statements are true regarding replica types? (Choose two.)
A. Subordinate references contain only the partition root object.
B. Master and read/write replicas are the only replicas that are automatically created.
C. A master or read/write replica must reside on a server where bindery services is used.
D. Subordinate references can be promoted to be the master replica without causing problems to the
NDS tree.
E. Master, read/write, read-only, and subordinate reference replicas can be manually created by
the network administrator.
Answer: A, C

certification Novell   050-684   050-684   certification 050-684

NO.15 You created a new application object in the SLC.DigitalAir partition. After creating the
object you noticed a problem when running a health check. Using the information in the
exhibits, what is the best solution to try first?
A. Reset schema on the DA1 server.
B. Reset schema on the DA2 server.
C. Remove all replicas from the DA1 server.
D. Remove all replicas from the DA2 server.
E. Declare a new epoch on the Schema partition.
F. Remove eDirectory from the DA1 server and re-install.
G. Remove eDirectory from the DA2 server and re-install.
Answer: D

Novell   050-684   certification 050-684

NO.16 Which are true statements when using the eDirectory Backup eMTool to back up and
restore Novell eDirectory 8.7? (Choose two.)
A. You can backup an attribute of just one object.
B. You can do a quick restore of an individual server.
C. You must be inside the firewall to do a backup or restore.
D. You can backup files on the server that are related to the database.
E. You should not backup your server until eDirectory has been shut down.
Answer: B, D

Novell   certification 050-684   050-684

NO.17 You have an eDirectory tree that contains 7 servers. Each server holds replicas as shown in
the exhibit. From the information given in the exhibit, which servers will hold a replica of
the schema partition?
A. All servers
B. The DA1 server only
C. All servers except DA7
D. The DA1, DA2 and DA6 servers only
Answer: A

Novell examen   050-684   certification 050-684

NO.18 Which Web-based utilities can you use to perform diagnostics and manage eDirectory 8.7?
A. iMonitor and iManager
B. iMonitor and Rconsole
C. iManager and ConsoleOne
D. iMonitor and Server Console Manager
E. iManager and Server Console Manager
Answer: A

certification Novell   050-684   050-684   050-684

NO.19 When a non-local object authenticates or attaches to a server, eDirectory creates a
placeholder for this object. What is this placeholder called?
A. Backlink
B. Obituary
C. Attribute
D. Remote object
E. External reference
Answer: E

Novell   certification 050-684   050-684 examen   050-684

NO.20 Which utilities can be used to view the schema synchronization process? (Choose two.)
A. iMonitor
B. iManager
C. ConsoleOne
D. MONITOR.NLM
E. DSTRACE.NLM
Answer: A, E

certification Novell   050-684   050-684   certification 050-684   050-684

NO.21 When upgrading your first server to eDirectory 8.7, you may need to update the eDirectory
schema. On which server should the schema be updated?
A. The server you are upgrading to eDirectory 8.7.
B. The server that has a replica of the [Root] partition.
C. Any server that holds a replica of any partition of the tree.
D. A server that holds the master replica of any partition of the tree.
Answer: B

Novell   050-684   050-684   050-684   050-684 examen   050-684

NO.22 Performing which partition operation will never cause the number of real objects in any
server's eDirectory database to change?
A. Move
B. Merge
C. Create
D. Add Replica
E. Remove Replica
Answer: B

Novell   certification 050-684   050-684

NO.23 Which replica or replicas contain a complete copy of all object information of a partition?
A. Master
B. Master and read-only
C. Master and read/write
D. Master, read/write, and read-only
E. Master, read/write, read-only, and subordinate reference
Answer: D

Novell examen   certification 050-684   050-684 examen   certification 050-684   050-684   050-684 examen

NO.24 Your eDirectory tree doesn't change often. On average, about once every three months
partition changes are made as servers are added to the tree. There are very few additions,
deletions or modifications of objects. In general, how often should you perform a health
check on this tree?
A. Once a week
B. Once a month
C. Once every three months
D. Only when partition changes are made
E. When objects have been added or deleted
Answer: A

Novell   050-684   certification 050-684

NO.25 Which statements regarding the extensible match feature of eDirectory 8.7 are true?
(Choose two.)
A. eDirectory 8.7 currently only supports an exact value match.
B. eDirectory 8.7 supports matching rules in the extensible match filter.
C. eDirectory 8.7 allows the inclusion of ACL attributes in a search via the extensible match
filter.
D. eDirectory 8.7 allows the inclusion of the distinguished name attributes in a search via the
extensible match filter.
E. eDirectory 8.7 allows the inclusion of partition-specific attributes in a search via the
extensible match filter.
Answer: A D

certification Novell   050-684   certification 050-684   050-684

NO.26 Which replica type can fill original requests for object changes but passes off all partition
requests?
A. Master
B. Read/write
C. Read-only
D. Subordinate reference
Answer: B

Novell   050-684   certification 050-684   certification 050-684

NO.27 Which statements are true regarding replica types? (Choose two.)
A. The master replica controls the obituary process through the janitor process.
B. Master, read/write, and read-only replicas control partition boundary changes.
C. Master, read/write, and read-only replicas control creating, deleting, and moving objects.
D. The subordinate reference replica is the only replica that cannot be manually created by the
network administrator.
E. Master, read/write, read-only, and subordinate references contain a complete copy of all
object information of the partition.
Answer: A, D

Novell   050-684 examen   050-684 examen   050-684 examen   certification 050-684   certification 050-684

NO.28 Which X.500 Directory component replicates information from one Directory Information
Database to another?
A. The Directory System Agent
B. The Directory System Protocol
C. The Directory Access Protocol
D. The Directory Information Tree
E. The Directory Information Shadow Protocol
Answer: E

Novell examen   050-684   certification 050-684   050-684

NO.29 The DA3 server is preparing to synchronize schema. What servers will DA3 send schema
synchronization information to?
A. Only servers in DA3's poll list
B. All servers in the same tree as DA3
C. All servers sharing replica rings with DA3
D. Only servers in replica rings where DA3 is the Master
Answer: D

certification Novell   050-684   certification 050-684   050-684   050-684

NO.30 Which replica type contains only the partition root object?
A. Master
B. Read/write
C. Read-only
D. Filtered replica
E. Subordinate reference
Answer: E

Novell   050-684 examen   050-684 examen   050-684

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Code d'Examen: 050-701
Nom d'Examen: Novell (Upgrading t Novell Open Enterprise Server for NetWare)
Questions et réponses: 167 Q&As

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NO.1 A.UNLOAD BLNK
B.DSTRACE -BLNK
C.DSTRACE BLNK OFF
D.DSTRACE BLNK STOP
E.DSTRACE BLNK OFF STAY RESIDENT
Answer: B

Novell examen   certification 050-701   050-701   050-701

NO.2 When you upgrade a NetWare 5.1 server to OES NetWare, what happens to the Enterprise Web
Server running on the NetWare 5.1 server?
A.It is reconfigured to use IP ports 81 and 444.
B.It is reconfigured to use a secondary IP address.
C.It is used to provide OES NetWare web services instead of Apache Web Server.
D.It is removed and its configuration parameters are migrated to the Apache Web Server's configuration
file.
Answer: D

Novell examen   050-701   050-701 examen   certification 050-701   050-701 examen

NO.3 After upgrading a NetWare 6.5 server to OES NetWare, the iPrint service on the server can no longer
distribute its iPrint printers to network clients. Which file should you locate and rename to "IPP.conf" to fix
this problem?
A.IPP.$$$
B.IPP.conf.new
C.IPP.conf.old
D.IPP.conf.OES
Answer: A

Novell examen   050-701   050-701

NO.4 When performing a Default Installation of OES NetWare, which parameters are configured
automatically by the installation program? (Choose 2.)
A.Codepage 437
B.VGA video mode
C.4 GB SYS volume
D.4 GB DATA volume
E.Basic NetWare File Server patterned deployment
Answer: AC

Novell   050-701   050-701   050-701

NO.5 How do you perform an In-Place Upgrade?
A.Use iManager 2.0 or later to complete the upgrade from a workstation.
B.Use NetWare Deployment Manager to complete the upgrade from a workstation.
C.Mount the OES NetWare Operating System CD; then select Novell > Install to begin the upgrade.
D.Boot the server from the OES NetWare Operating System CD and manually execute INSTALL.BAT with
the /UPGRADE switch.
Answer: C

certification Novell   050-701   050-701 examen   050-701   050-701

NO.6 What is the value of the last byte of a computer's NetBIOS name if the system functions as a
workstation?
A.00
B.20
C.1C
D.Null
Answer: A

Novell   050-701   050-701

NO.7 When attempting an In-Place Upgrade on a NetWare 5.1 server with Support Pack 5, the upgrade
process fails. Which is the cause?
A.NetWare 5.1 servers can't be upgraded; you must use the Migration Wizard.
B.You must apply Support Pack 8 or later to upgrade a NetWare 5.1 server to OES NetWare.
C.You can't use an In-Place Upgrade on a NetWare 5.1 Server; you must perform a Remote Upgrade.
D.You can't use an In-Place Upgrade on a NetWare 5.1 server; you must perform a Down-Server
Upgrade.
Answer: B

Novell examen   050-701   050-701   certification 050-701   050-701   050-701 examen

NO.8 You are migrating a NetWare 5.1 server to OES NetWare. The source server name is DA36 and is
located in FINANCE.SLC.DA in the DA-TREE. You install the pre-migration OES NetWare server as
DA36 located in .DA in the TEMP-TREE. Why will the migration fail?
A.The source tree name must be the same as the destination tree name.
B.The source server name can't be the same as the destination server name.
C.The source server context must be the same as the destination server context.
D.You must first upgrade the NetWare 5.1 server to NetWare 6.0; then migrate it to OES NetWare.
E.The source tree name and the server context must be the same as the destination tree name and
server context.
Answer: B

certification Novell   050-701   050-701   050-701 examen

NO.9 What does the View and Update NDS option in Deployment Manager do?
A.Upgrades existing versions of NDS in the tree to eDirectory.
B.Copies a new version of DS.NLM and SGUID.NLM to NetWare 4 servers in the tree.
C.Places a Read/Write replica of the root partition on all existing servers in the tree.
D.Patches existing servers in the tree to a revision level compatible with the version of eDirectory used by
OES NetWare.
E.Locates servers that are running incompatible versions of Directory Services and removes them from
the tree.
Answer: D

Novell   050-701   050-701   050-701 examen   050-701   050-701

NO.10 Which commands are used to start and stop the Public Instance of Tomcat on an OES NetWare server?
(Choose 2.)
A.tcstop.ncf
B.tomcat4.ncf
C.tc4stop.ncf
D.tcstart.ncf
E.tc4start.ncf
F.tomcat4stop.ncf
Answer: BC

Novell   certification 050-701   050-701 examen

NO.11 You want to upgrade a NetWare 6 server with Support Pack 1 to OES NetWare. The server hardware
uses dual Pentium II 400 MHz CPUs, 512 MB RAM, an 8 GB hard disk drive with a 200 MB DOS partition,
and a USB mouse. Can this server be upgraded?
A.Yes, the server meets all prerequisite requirements.
B.No, OES NetWare requires PIII 750 MHz CPUs or later.
C.No, the server's CPU is too slow and the hard disk drive is too small.
D.No, the server's DOS partition is too small and USB mice aren't supported.
E.No, the server doesn't have enough RAM and must have Support Pack 3 or later applied.
F.No, the server's DOS partition is too small and must have Support Pack 5 or later applied.
Answer: F

certification Novell   050-701   050-701 examen   certification 050-701

NO.12 Given that your workstation's CD drive is assigned drive letter D, what is the Migration Wizard 8.1
location and filename?
A.D:\MIGRTWZD.EXE
B.D:\MIGRTWZD81.EXE
C.D:\PRODUCTS\SCMT.EXE
D.D:\INSTALL\MIGRTWZD81.EXE
E.D:\PRODUCTS\MGRTWZD\SCMT.EXE
F.D:\PRODUCTS\MIGRATION_UTILITIES\SCMT.EXE
Answer: F

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NO.13 While upgrading a NetWare 5.1 server to OES NetWare, you see "Unable to Copy File" error messages
on the screen. After the upgrade is complete, you can't boot the operating system. Which are the most
probable causes of this problem? (Choose 2.)
A.Files in the C:\Nwserver directory were flagged Read-Only.
B.An obsolete support pack was installed on the NetWare 5.1 server.
C.The .HAM storage driver was out of date on the NetWare 5.1 server.
D.The server's BIOS needs to be updated to the latest firmware version.
E.The .CDM hard disk device driver was out of date on the NetWare 5.1 server.
Answer: AD

Novell   050-701 examen   050-701 examen   050-701   050-701 examen   certification 050-701

NO.14 Which OES NetWare component enables script-based management of the network?
A.NXBit Support
B.bash Shell Support
C.ZENworks Management Daemon
D.Common Information Model Support
Answer: B

Novell   050-701   certification 050-701   050-701   050-701 examen   050-701 examen

NO.15 Which operating system uses a version of NDS or eDirectory that is incompatible with OES NetWare?
A.NetWare 3.2
B.NetWare 4.1
C.NetWare 4.2
D.NetWare 5.0
E.NetWare 5.1
F.NetWare 6.0
Answer: B

Novell   050-701   certification 050-701   certification 050-701   050-701 examen

NO.16 While upgrading a NetWare 6 server to OES NetWare, the following error message has been
displayed
on the server:
"Error Binding IP to AMD_PCI1. Make sure this card's IP address is not already in use."
The server has hung and you can't complete the upgrade. What caused this to happen?
A.An incorrect board name has been assigned to the network interface.
B.The wrong .LAN driver has been loaded for the server's network board.
C.The same IP address is being assigned twice to the same network board.
D.The latest support pack has not been installed on the NetWare 6 server.
E.Your server's startup files were stored in a directory named something other than "C:\Nwserver".
Answer: E

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NO.17 If a NetWare 4.2 server exists in the tree where you plan to install an OES NetWare server, what must
you do?
A.Implement Universal Password.
B.Remove the server from the tree.
C.Run Deployment Manager and select the Prepare for CIFS/AFP option.
D.Run Deployment Manager and select the Generate GUIDs on NetWare 4 Servers option.
E.Run Deployment Manager and select the Update Certificate Authority Objects option.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Your organization has three eDirectory trees; one for each functional group in your organization. One
tree runs on NetWare 5.1 servers; the others run on NetWare 6.0 servers. You've just installed a high-end
OES NetWare server and want to consolidate all the servers in the disparate trees to the new server using
the Novell NetWare Server Consolidation Utility. Can this be done?
A.Yes, the network meets the prerequisite requirements.
B.No, the Server Consolidation Utility can't consolidate servers residing in different trees.
C.No, NetWare 6.0 servers can't be consolidated to an OES NetWare server using the Server
Consolidation Utility.
D.No, NetWare 5.1 servers can't be consolidated to an OES NetWare server using the Server
Consolidation Utility.
E.No, you can't consolidate servers of mixed versions to an OES NetWare server using the Server
Consolidation Utility.
Answer: A

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NO.19 While migrating a NetWare 5.1 server to OES NetWare using a Windows 2000 Professional
workstation with Service Pack 2 and Novell Client 4.83 installed, the migration fails. What is the cause of
the problem?
A.Windows 2000 Professional isn't compatible with the Migration Wizard.
B.NMAS must be disabled on the Novell Client 4.83 to work with the Migration Wizard.
C.The Migration Wizard requires the Novell Client 4.91 or later be installed on the workstation.
D.The Migration Wizard requires NICI 2.0.2 be installed on a Windows 2000 Professional workstation.
E.The Migration Wizard requires Service Pack 4 or later be installed on a Windows 2000 Professional
workstation.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which utility is used to verify that each server has the cryptographic keys necessary to securely
communicate with the other servers in the tree?
A.SECURE.NLM
B.CONFIG.NLM
C.SDIDIAG.NLM
D.MONITOR.NLM
E.PKICHECK.NLM
F.SDINOTES.NLM
G.SECUREDIAG.NLM
Answer: C

Novell   050-701 examen   certification 050-701   050-701

NO.21 Click the Point and Click button to begin.
Click the iManager task used to move and split NSS volumes.
Answer: Select ° Vo l u m e

NO.22 Which OES NetWare component automates the download and installation of NetWare updates?
A.VIM Support
B.bash Support
C.NXBit Support
D.ZENworks Red Carpet Daemon
E.Common Information Model Support
Answer: D

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NO.23 Which are prerequisite requirements for using Deployment Manager? (Choose 2.)
A.NetWare 6.5 or later installed on the server.
B.Windows 98 or later installed on the workstation.
C.eDirectory 8.7.3 or later installed on the server.
D.Windows 2000 or later installed on the workstation.
E.A Read/Write replica of the tree's root partition on the server.
Answer: DE

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NO.24 As a part of the In-Place Upgrade process; what command is used to mount the OES NetWare
Operating System CD as a volume on a NetWare 6.0 server?
A.CD MOUNT ALL
B.LOAD CDROM.NSS
C.LOAD CD9660.NSS
D.LOAD CD9660.NLM
E.LOAD ISO9660.NSS
F.LOAD ISO9660.NLM
G.MOUNT -T ISO9660
Answer: C

Novell   050-701   certification 050-701   certification 050-701   certification 050-701

NO.25 If a NetWare 4.1 server exists in the tree where you plan to install an OES NetWare server, what must
you do?
A.Remove the server from the tree.
B.Use the View and Update NDS option in Deployment Manager.
C.Use the Extend the Core Schema option in Deployment Manager.
D.Use the Prepare for New eDirectory option in Deployment Manager.
E.Use the Generate GUIDs on NetWare 4 Servers option in Deployment Manager.
Answer: A

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NO.26 Which OES NetWare service allows users to find and restore deleted files without help desk support?
A.iSCSI
B.iFolder
C.Virtual Office
D.Identity Manager
E.Archive and Versioning
F.Novell File Access Protocols
Answer: E

Novell   050-701 examen   certification 050-701   certification 050-701   certification 050-701

NO.27 How do you perform a Down-Server Upgrade?
A.Use iManager 2.0 or later to complete the upgrade from a workstation.
B.Use NetWare Deployment Manager to complete the upgrade from a workstation.
C.Mount the OES NetWare Operating System CD; then select Novell > Install to begin the upgrade.
D.Boot the server from the OES NetWare Operating System CD and manually execute INSTALL.BAT with
the /UPGRADE switch.
Answer: D

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NO.28 After upgrading a NetWare 5.1 server to OES NetWare, you can't mount volume DATA. Given that
DATA is an NSS volume, which command will fix the problem?
A.LOAD NW51.NSS
B.LOAD ZLSS.NSS
C.VCU DATA DATA2
D.VOLMN DATA DATA2
E.NSS /NW51VOLUMEUPGRADE=ON
F.NSS /ZLSSVOLUMEUPGRADE=ALL
G.NSS /NW51VOLUMEUPGRADE=ALL
Answer: F

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NO.29 What steps do you need to take to prepare a Windows 2000 or XP Professional workstation to run the
Migration Wizard? (Choose 2.)
A.Disable burst mode in the Novell Client.
B.Disable file caching in the Novell Client.
C.Verify that Microsoft SQL Server is installed.
D.Install Microsoft Data Access Components 2.8 or later.
E.Disable the Auto Reconnect parameter in the Novell Client.
F.Verify that Microsoft .NET Framework Version 1.1 is installed.
Answer: BD

Novell   050-701 examen   050-701   050-701 examen   050-701 examen

NO.30 Given that your workstation's CD drive is assigned drive letter D, which is the correct file name and
location for the NetWare Deployment Manager executable?
A.D:\NWDEPLOY.EXE
B.D:\OESNWDEPLOY.EXE
C.D:\TOOLS\NWDEPLOY.EXE
D.D:\INSTALL\NWDEPLOY.EXE
E.D:\PRODUCTS\NWDEPLOY.EXE
Answer: A

Novell   050-701 examen   050-701

050-701 est un test de Novell Certification, donc réussir 050-701 est le premier pas à mettre le pied sur la Certifiction Novell. Ça peut expliquer certiainement pourquoi le test Novell 050-701 devient de plus en plus chaud, et il y a de plus en plus de gens qui veulent participer le test 050-701. Au contraire, il n'y a que pas beaucoup de gens qui pourrait réussir ce test. Dans ce cas, si vous vous réfléchissez étudier avec une bonne Q&A?