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Code d'Examen: 1z0-062
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 12c: Installation and Administration)
Questions et réponses: 166 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z0-100
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Linux 5 and 6 System Administration)
Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z0-474
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Taleo Recruiting Cloud Service 2012 Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 76 Q&As

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NO.1 You want to display the value of a shell variable called service after assigning a value as
shown:
SERVICE =ACCT S
Which two settings will display the name of the variable and its value?
A. set | grep service
B. echo $SERVICE
C. env | grep SERVICE
D. env $SERVICE
E. set $SERVICE
Answer: B,C

Oracle   1z0-100 examen   1z0-100 examen
Explanation:
C: env - set the environment for command invocation
If no utility operand is specified, the resulting environment shall be written to the standard output,
with one name= value pair per line.

NO.2 Examine this extract from the /etc/ssh/sshd_config file:
passwordAuthentication no
What is the effect of this parameter settings on the use of openSSH commands on both the client
and server?
A. Passwords are not required and no ssh-keygen is required either. Only passphrase are required.
B. Client users whose keys are not in the authorized_keys file on the server are unable to use
passwords to authenticate themselves to the server.
C. The ssh daemon does not ask for a password before starting or stopping the sshd service.
D. Client users whose keys are not in the authorized_keys file on the client are unable to use
passwords to authenticate themselves to the server.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
If you set PasswordAuthentication to no, you will no longer be able to use a login and password to
authenticate and must use a login and public key instead (if PubkeyAuthentication is set to yes).

NO.3 Which four statements are true about software on the Oracle Public YUM server?
A. It contains Oracle Linux installation ISO images.
B. It contains Oracle Linux binary RPM packages.
C. It contains Oracle Linux errata packages.
D. It contains Oracle Linux source RPM packages.
E. It contains beta Oracle Linux software packages.
F. It does not contain Unbreakable Enterprise Kernel packages.
Answer: B,C,D,F

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Explanation:
The Oracle public yum server offers a free and convenient way to install the latest Oracle Linux
packages as well as packages from the Oracle VM installation media via a yum client.
Oracle provides all errata and updates for Oracle Linux via the Public Yum service, which includes
updates to the base distribution, but does not include Oracle-specific software.
F: By default, all new installations of Oracle Linux 6 Update 5 are automatically configured to use the
public yum update service. If you subsequently register the system with ULN, the public yum service
is automatically disabled.

NO.4 Examine the command on its output:
[root@FAROUT ~] # modprobe -v nfs
Insmod /lib/modules/ 2.6.39-100.0.12.e16uek.x86_64 /kernel/fs/nfs_common/nfs_acl.ko insmod
/lob/modules/ 2.6.39
100.0.12.e16uek.x86_64 /kernel/net/sunrpc/auth_gss/auth_rpcgss.ko
Insmod /lib/modules/ 2.6.39-100.0.12.e16uek.x86_64 /kernel/fs/fscache/fscache/ko
Insmod /lib/modules/ 2.6.39-100.0.12.e16uek.x86_64 /kernel/fs/locked.ko
Insmod /lib/modules/ 2.6.39-100.0.12.e16uek.x86_64 /kernel/fs/nfs/nfs.ko
Which two statements are true about the modprobe command?
A. It will load the nfs module if all the modules upon which it depends have been loaded.
B. It displays the dependency resolution for the nfs module and loads all the modules upon which
nfs depends before loading the nfs module.
C. It verifies that the nfs module and all other modules that depend on the nfs module are installed.
D. It displays the dependency resolution that would occur if the nfs module were to be loaded using
modprobe nfs.
E. It only loads the nfs module if all the modules upon which it depends have not been loaded yet.
Answer: A

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Reference: http://redhat.activeventure.com/ 8 /customizationguide/ch-kernel-modules.html (kernel
module utilities)

NO.5 Which two software packages are prerequisites for enabling the configuration and use of a
Network information Service (Nis) client?
A. nis-tools
B. slapi-nis
C. ypbind
D. nisserv
E. nisbind
F. yp-tools
Answer: C,E

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Explanation:
C: ypbind finds the server for NIS domains and maintains the NIS binding information. The client
(normaly the NIS routines in the standard C library) could get the information over RPC from ypbind
or read the binding files.
E: Setting up a NIS master server:
Required packages: yp-tools ypbind ypserv portmap

NO.6 Examine this output:
# df -t nfs
FilesystemSizeUsedAvailUse%Mounted on
o16:export30G21G7.6G74%/mnt
# 1s -1 /mnt/nfs.sh
-rwxr-mr-x. 1 root root 22 May 8 16:37 /mnt/nfs.sh
# file /mnt/nfs.sh
/mnt/nfs.sh: Bourne-Again shell script text executables
# /mnt/nfs.sh
bash: /mnt/nfs.sh: Permission denied What is the reason for the error?
A. The file system was exported on host o16 using the ROOT_SQUASH option.
B. The /export filesystem was mounted with the NOEXEC option on host o16.
C. The filesystem mounted on /mnt was mounted with the NOEXEC option.
D. The filesystem was exported on host o16 by using the NO_ROOT_SQUASH option.
Answer: A

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NO.7 This MDADM output:
Which two aspects can be determined from this output?
A. A device failed and has been removed from this RAID set.
B. It is no longer possible to write to this RAID set.
C. Read and write performance is no longer optimal on this RAID set.
D. This RAID set was built without a spare device.
E. Only Write performance is no longer optimal on this RAID set.
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 Which statements is true concerning Oracle Linux configuration files for users and groups?
A. The /etc/passwd file contains hashed passwords for each user.
B. The /etc/shadow file contains hashed passwords for each user.
C. The GECOS field in /etc/passwd file may be empty.
D. The /etc/group file contains the group name and the hashed group password.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
/etc/shadow file stores actual password in encrypted (one-way hashed) format for user's account
with additional properties related to user password i.e. it stores secure user account information

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-550
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (JD Edwards EnterpriseOne 9 Configurable Network Computing Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 77 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-514
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 68 Q&As

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NO.1 Regardless of the platform choice, Work with Server Jobs is the key mechanism to review the status of
a UBE job that has been submitted to server. After a job has been submitted, which of the following
configuration option is NOT required for Object Management Workbench (OMW) to function an
administrator cannot do from Work with Server Jobs?
A. Print Jobs
B. Change Job Priority
C. View Logs for Job
D. Terminate Jobs
E. Resubmit a Job
Answer: B

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NO.2 What configuration option is NOT required for Object Management Workbench (OMW) to function?
A. Activity Rules
B. User Roles
C. Constants
D. Allowed Actions
E. Save Location
Answer: D

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NO.3 When deploying a Full Package to an Enterprise Server, what defines the location of the object
specifications to be used during runtime that the package deployment modifies?
A. The path code spec directory
B. The package spec directory
C. JDE.INI
D. OCM
E. The spec.ini file in the package spec directory
Answer: E

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NO.4 Sever Manager provides a unified interface where administrators can view information regarding
EnterpriseOne. What are the three major functions of Server Manager?
A. Check the EnterpriseOne Server Installed Programs
B. Check the EnterpriseOne Server Configurations
C. Check the EnterpriseOne Server OS Patch level
D. Monitor the EnterpriseOne Server Process
E. Monitor the EnterpriseOne Server Task Manager
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 When selecting a Path Code Database as part of the EnterpriseOne Platform Pack installation, which
two get installed on the server.?
A. System/Foundation code
B. Path Code specifications and runtime libraries
C. Database scripts to create and load databases
D. Server Manager Agent
E. Path Code Databases - Central Objects, Business Data, ...
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 EnterpriseOne subsystem UBE jobs provide the system the ability to run without interaction and to
avoid the fixed cost of repeated UBE startup overhead. Which of the options would make UBE a
good candidate for the subsystem?
A. Long running jobs
B. Short duration jobs
C. Process intensive jobs
D. Light-weight process jobs
E. High memory usage jobs
Answer: B

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NO.7 ACME is about to upgrade their Development environment from ERP 8.0 to EnterpriseOne 9.00.
Which pre-upgrade task is NOT recommended by the EnterpriseOne Upgrade documentation?
A. Verify Media Object queue setting in P98MOQUE
B. Generate serialized objects for the development environment
C. Transfer production versions to prototype using UBE R9830512
D. Make sure all work in progress objects have been checked into the development environment
E. Check the modification and merge flags through the Specification Merge Selection application
Answer: D

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NO.8 ACME is working on setting up security for *PUBLIC, individual users, and roles. What security type
grants permission to run an application regardless of other security settings?
A. Application
B. Action
C. Exit
D. Exclusive Application
E. Tab
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 1z1-574
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle IT Architecture Essentials (Beta Exam))
Questions et réponses: 176 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z0-593
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Real Application Clusters 11g Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Choose two options that are not suitable for shared storage in a RAC 11g Release 2 database
created using DBCA.
A. Block device
B. Raw device
C. ASM
D. CFS
Answer: A,B

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Explanation:
Before you use DBCA to convert a single-instance database to an Oracle RAC or an
Oracle RAC One Node database, ensure that your system meets the following conditions:
/ It is a supported hardware and operating system software configuration.
/ It has shared storage: either Oracle Cluster File System (CFS) (not D) or Oracle ASM (not C) is
available and accessible from all nodes. On Linux on POWER systems, ensure that GPFS is
available and accessible from all nodes.
/ Your applications have no design characteristics that preclude their use with cluster database
processing.
Note:
*DBCA (Database Configuration Assistant) is a utility used for creating, configuring and removing
Oracle Databases.
Reference:Creating Oracle Real Application Clusters Databases with Database Configuration
Assistant
Reference:Converting to Oracle RAC and Oracle RAC One Node with DBCA

NO.2 Which step will you have to perform on Windows to restore the OCR that you did not do on
Linux?
A. Identify existing backups with the -backup option
B. Use the Service Control Panel to stop services
C. Review the contents of the backup with the ocrdump command
D. Make sure that the restored OCR files are valid
Answer: B

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Explanation:
See step 2) below. Restoring the Oracle Cluster Registry on Windows-Based Systems
Use the following procedure to restore the OCR on Windows-based systems:
cluvfy comp ocr -n all [-verbose]
Note:
Restoring the Oracle Cluster Registry on UNIX-Based SystemsUse the following procedure to
restore the OCR on UNIX-based systems:
Repeat this command on each node in your Oracle RAC cluster.
Note:
Prior to running the crsctl start crs command in step 4, run the following command to verify that all
processes except init.cssd fatal are inactive:
ps -ef|grep cssd
Repeat this command on each node in your Oracle RAC cluster.
Reference: Oracle Database Oracle Clusterware and Oracle Real Application Clusters
Administration and Deployment Guide

NO.3 Which two options are checked by the Oracle Universal Installer, when you first install Oracle
Software on a system?
A. if the OFA-compliant path is available
B. oraInst.loc should exist
C. that the user running the installation has permissions to write to the designated path
D. that you are running OUI as a DBA user
Answer: A,B

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Explanation:
A:
*When installing an OFA-compliant database using Oracle Universal Installer, ORACLE_BASE is
set to /pm/app/oracle by default.
*All Oracle products on CD-ROM are OFA-compliant; that is, Oracle Universal Installer places
Oracle products in directory locations that follow OFA guidelines
B: Every Oracle software installation has an associated Central Inventory where the details of all the
Oracle products installed on a host are registered. The Central Inventory is located in thedirectory
that the inventory pointer file specifies. Each Oracle software installation has its own Central
Inventory pointer file that is unknown to another Oracle software installation.
Default Inventory Pointer File Locations
PlatformDefault Inventory Pointer Location Linux LinuxPPC /etc/oraInst.loc AIX /etc/oraInst.loc
Solaris SPARC HPUX-IA64 HPUX-PARISC /var/opt/oracle/oraInst.loc Windows Windows.X64
Windows.IA64 HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE/Software/Oracle/inst.loc

NO.4 Which two actions do you need to take in Oracle Grid Infrastructure 11g Release 2 to enable
debugging for the resource ora.docrac.vip?
A. Make sure you are logged in as a privileged user.
B. crsctldebug res ora.docrac1.vip:1
C. crsctlset log res ora.docrac1.vip:1
D. crsctldebug log res ora.docrac1.vip:0
Answer: A,C

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Explanation:
A:You can use crsctl commands as the root user to enable dynamic debugging for the Oracle
Clusterware Cluster Ready Services (CRS), Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR), Cluster Synchronization
Services (CSS), and the Event Manager (EVM).
C: You can enable debugging for the CRS, OCR, CSS, and EVM modules and their components by
setting environment variables or by issuing crsctl debug commands using the following syntax:
crsctl debug log module_name component:debugging_level
Reference: Oracle Clusterware Administration and Deployment Guide,Component Level Debugging

NO.5 The Oracle Cluster Health Monitor can't _________.
A. Detect and analyze OS and duster resource for problems in Oracle Clusterware and RAC cluster
B. Track OS resource consumption at each node, process, and device level continuously
C. Be installed on Windows Server 20O3 SP1
D. Collect and analyze the cluster-wide data
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Incorrect: Oracle Cluster Health Monitoris designed to detect and analyze operating system (OS) and
cluster resource related degradation and failures in order to bring more explanatory power to many
issues that occur in clusters where Oracle Clusterware and Oracle RAC are running such as node
eviction. It continuously tracks the OS resource consumption at each node, process, and device level.
It collects and analyzes this cluster-wide data. In real time mode, when thresholds are hit, an alert is
shown to the operator. For root cause analysis, historical data can be replayed to understand what
was happening at the time of failure.

NO.6 You are creating an Oracle Cluster database using DBCA. The "Memory size (SGA and PGA)"
field is supplied on value of 2000 MB. The default Block used for the database is __________.
A. 2 KB
B. 4 KB
C. 8 KB
D. 16 KB
E. 32 KB
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Note: *In the Block Size list, enter the size in bytes or accept the default. Oracle Database data is
stored in these blocks. One data block corresponds to a specific number of bytes of physical space
on disk. While using pre-defined templates, this field is not enabled since the database will be
created with the default block size of 8 KB. But while using the custom option, you can change block
size. Selecting a block size other than the default 8 KB value requires advanced knowledge and
should only be done when absolutely required.

NO.7 Select two Clusterware administration tasks that must be performed as the root user.
A. List the location of the voting disks.
B. Check the health and viability of the Clusterware on all nodes.
C. Disable the Clusterware from automatic start at node reboot.
D. Start the Clusterware manually on one node.
E. Check the health of the Clusterware on one node.
Answer: A,D

Oracle examen   1z0-593 examen   1z0-593
Explanation:
A:Voting disk management requires a valid and working OCR. Before you add, delete, replace, or
restore voting disks, run the ocrcheck command as root.
D: Example:
Restart the Oracle Clusterware stack in normal mode as root:
# crsctl start crs

NO.8 Which command lists all the service-related information for the specified service? (crmdb is
the cluster database name and crms is the service name)
A. #crsctl config services -d cmdb -s crms
B. #srvctlconfig service -d cmdb -s crms
C. #srvctl getenv service -d crmdb -s crms
D. #crsctl status service -d crm -s crm -v
Answer: B

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Explanation:
*The srvctl config command displays the Oracle Restart configuration of the specified component or
set of components.
*srvctl config service For the specified database, displays the Oracle Restart configuration
information for the specified database service or for all database services
Incorrect: Not C: getenv
Gets and displays environment variables and their values from the Oracle Restart configuration for a
database, listener, or Oracle ASM instance.
srvctl getenv Summary
CommandDescription
*srvctl getenv asm Displays the configured environment variables for the Oracle ASM instance
*srvctl getenv database Displays the configured environment variables for the specified database
instance
*srvctl getenv listener Displays the configuredenvironment variables for the specified listener
Reference:SRVCTL Command Reference for Oracle Restart

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-041
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 10g: DBA Assessment )
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z1-478
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle SOA Suite 11g Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three statements are correct regarding the Database Configuration Assistant
(DBCA) templates? (Choose three.)
A. Templates are XML files.
B. Seed templates are stored with the .dbt extension.
C. Templates cannot be copied from one machine to another.
D. Creation of the database is faster when you use a nonseed template instead of a seed
template.
E. Templates are stored in the $ORACLE_HOME/assistants/dbca/templates directory on a
Linux platform.
F. If you use a nonseed template to create the database, then all the datafiles and redo logs
are created as per your specification.
Answer: A, E, F

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NO.2 Which default administrative user account does the Management Agent component of
Oracle Enterprise Manager use to monitor and manage the database?
A. OE
B. SYS
C. OUTLN
D. DBSNMP
E. SYSTEM
F. SYSMAN
Answer: D

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NO.3 Exhibit:
View the Exhibit.
You are creating an additional database by using Database Configuration Assistant
(DBCA). You realize that the Block Size field is not enabled. What could be the reason?
A. You have chosen the File System option as the storage mechanism.
B. You are not using the Custom Database template to create the database.
C. You have not chosen the Use Grid Control for Database Management option.
D. The data block size is set to the maximum block size supported by the operating system.
E. The data block size can be increased only when DBCA is invoked from Oracle
Universal Installer (OUI).
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which three usernames, by default, provide access to Oracle Enterprise
Manager Database Control? (Choose three.)
A. SYS
B. MDSYS
C. WKSYS
D. DMSNMP
E. SYSTEM
F. SYSMAN
Answer: A, E, F

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NO.5 Which three statements are true about database storage structures? (Choose
three.)
A. Tablespaces comprise one or more datafiles.
B. Segments can span datafiles within a tablespace.
C. Datafiles can belong to more than one tablespace.
D. Segments can span datafiles across tablespaces.
E. Data objects are stored as segments in tablespaces.
Answer: A, B, E

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NO.6 Exhibit:
View the Exhibit and examine the Net Services Administration page of Enterprise Manager.
Which menu option would you choose to manage the contents of the tnsnames.ora file?
A: Listeners
B: Directory Naming
C: Local Naming
D: File Location
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two statements are correct regarding naming methods? (Choose two.)
A. Easy connect naming method requires no configuration.
B. Directory naming method stores net service names in a local configuration file.
C. Local naming method stores net service names in a supported non-Oracle service.
D. Directory naming method stores connect identifiers in a centralized, LDAP-compliant
directory server.
E. External naming method stores connect descriptors, identified by their net service names
in the sqlnet.ora file.
Answer: A, D

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NO.8 To protect the sample schema accounts from an unauthorized user access,
these accounts are _____.
A. not granted any role initially
B. operating system (OS) authenticated
C. initially locked with their passwords expired
D. created with their passwords stored in a password file
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 1z0-460
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Linux 6 Implementation Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 71 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-403
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Enterprise Linux System Administration)
Questions et réponses: 113 Q&As

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NO.1 You have the default syslogd configuration in your system. You plugged in a USB keydrive into the
system.
Which command would help you to find the bus and the device number of the keydrive?
A. lsusb
B. lsmod
C. insmod
D. cat /proc/self/mounts
Answer: A

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NO.2 You want to make Oracle Enterprise Linux coexist with Microsoft Windows on your machine. You
install Oracle Enterprise Linux first with the default boot loader configuration and then install Microsoft
WindowsXP. You reboot the system after installation and the system boots directly into the Windows
operating system without showing the Grand Unified Boot Loader (GRUB) menu.
Which two steps could you have taken to avoid this situation? (Choose two.)
A. Install Oracle Enterprise Linux first with the boot loader on MBR and then install Microsoft WindowsXP.
B. Install Microsoft WindowsXP first and then install Oracle Enterprise Linux with the boot loader on
Master Boot Record (MBR).
C. Install Microsoft WindowsXP first and then install Oracle Enterprise Linux with the boot loader at the
first sector of the /boot partition.
D. Install Oracle Enterprise Linux first with the boot loader at the first sector of the /boot partition and then
install Microsoft WindowsXP.
Answer: BC

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NO.3 You have a /dev/md1 redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array on your system as shown
below:
[root@server1 ~]# cat /proc/mdstat
Personalities : [raid 5]
md1 : active raid5 sdd1[3] sdc1[1] sdb1[0]
594176 blocks level 5, 64k chunk, algorithm 2 [3/2] [UU_]
unused devices:
The /dev/md1 RAID array is mounted on /data. You issued the command:
mdadm --fail /dev/md1 /dev/sdc1 /dev/sdb1
Which statements are true about the RAID array after you issue this command? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The kernel would report a Buffer I/O error on the RAID device /dev/md1.
B. The RAID array would be destroyed but the data could be recovered from the RAID disks.
C. The RAID array would be completely destroyed including the super block of the file system.
D. The RAID array could be reconstructed using new RAID partitions that synchronize with the /dev/sdd1
disk partition.
Answer: AC

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NO.4 Which three statements are true about the Linux swap file system? (Choose three.)
A. The Linux user data cannot be written to the Linux swap space.
B. High-priority swap spaces would be exhausted only after exhausting swap spaces with equal priorities.
C. The Linux kernel code and data are not swappable and are never moved to swap file system from
physical memory.
D. If too much space is allocated for swap, errant programs may run for an extended time and use up
RAM and swap space.
E. When most of the system's real memory is in use, and there is a need for more, some data would be
moved into the swap file system to free real RAM memory for use by applications or for kernel use, such
as for driver buffers, files, or network packets.
Answer: CDE

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NO.5 While importing user accounts in bulk along with passwords using the newusers command, you noticed
that user passwords are saved in the /etc/shadow file in the crypt format.
How would you enable the newusers command to use the preferred MD5 format when writing passwords
to the /etc/shadow file?
A. Add the MD5_ENAB=yes line to the /etc/login.defs file.
B. Add the MD5_CRYPT yes line to the /etc/login.defs file.
C. Add the MD5_CRYPT_ENAB yes line to the /etc/login.defs file.
D. Add the MD5_CRYPT_ENAB yes line to the /etc/security/limits.conf file.
Answer: C

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NO.6 As an administrator, you execute the following command to verify the integrity of mysql:
[root@server1]#rpm -Va mysql
S.5....T c /etc/my.cnf
What attributes of the /etc/my.cnf file have changed?
A. The permissions, user ownership, and file type have changed.
B. The permissions, group ownership, and file type have changed.
C. The user ownership, group ownership, and file type have changed.
D. The MD5 signature, file size, and modification time have changed.
Answer: D

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NO.7 You work for XYZ organization and are setting up a new Linux box. The organization wants the user's
data on the system to be safe even in the event of a crash of the root filesystem.
Which step do you think would help the administrator achieve the organization's objective?
A. Have /opt directory on its own filesystem with the filesystem being ext3.
B. Have /home directory on its own filesystem with the filesystem being ext3.
C. Have /var directory on its own filesystem and all other filesystems under / (root filesystem).
D. Have /usr directory on its own filesystem and all other filesystems under / (root filesystem).
Answer: B

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NO.8 You are logged in to server1 and want to allow remote connections to server1 through X Display
Manager Control Protocol (XDMCP). You change the entry "Enable=false" to "Enable=true" in the
"[xdmcp]" section of the gdm.conf configuration file.
To test the XDMCP configuration, you log in to station1 as smith and try to connect to server1 by using the
following command:
[smith@station1]$ X -query server1.example.com :1
What is the result?
A. A connection to the gdm display manager on server1.example.com would be established using direct
XDMCP.
B. A connection to the xdm display manager on server1.example.com would be established using direct
XDMCP.
C. A connection to the gdm display manager on server1.example.com would be established using indirect
XDMCP.
D. A connection to the xdm display manager on server1.example.com would be established using indirect
XDMCP.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 1z0-497
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 12c Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1z0-507
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Financials 11g Accounts Payable Essentials )
Questions et réponses: 119 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-053
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: Administration II)
Questions et réponses: 698 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three background processes are mandatory in a database Instance started with a
minimally configured Initialization parameter file?
A. Process Monitor Process (PMON)
B. Flashback Data Archive process (FBDA)
C. Space Management Coordinator process (SMCO)
D. Recoverer process (RECO)
E. Listener Registration process (LREG)
F. Checkpoint process (CKPT)
Answer: A,D,F

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Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01 /server.112 /e25789/process.htm#CNCPT9840

NO.2 You are about to apply a patch to a database. Which recommended action is incorrect?
A. You should check the patch conflict with installed patches before applying the patch.
B. You should make sure that you have a good backup of the software, database, and configuration
files.
C. You should install the latest O patch before applying the patch.
D. You should check the fifth digit of the release information to confirm that the Patch Set Update
(PSU) is applied successfully.
E. You should stop all applications running from the software directory that is being patched.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Your customer needs server availability that provides uninterrupted access to database
services, handling any unexpected failure of one or more machines hosting the database server, due
to a hardware or software fault. Which product should your customer use?
A. Oracle Data Guard
B. Oracle Streams
C. Oracle Real Application Clusters
D. Oracle GoldenGate
Answer: C

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Reference:
http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/availability/maximum-availability-wp-12c1896116.p
df (page 5, Server HA: Oracle Real Application Clusters)

NO.4 You are about to install Oracle Database 12c Enterprise Edition. Which statement is true?
A. You should not install the Oracle Database software into an existing Oracle home from a different
release.
B. A multitenant container database (CDB) can have several pluggable databases (PDBs) with
different character sets.
C. Oracle recommends that you back up the root. sh script after you complete the installation.
D. Cloning an Oracle home is useful if you are performing multiple Oracle Database Installations.
E. You can stop existing Oracle processes, including the listener and the database running in the
Oracle home, before the database software installation.
Answer: E

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NO.5 Your customer has two CDBs: one for Production and one for development. You are asked to
create a new development PDB (salesdev) from an existing production PDB (salesprd). Which two
options would accomplish this?
A. You copy all the PDBSSEEDdata files from the production CDB into the development CDB and
execute this on the development COB;
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev ADMIN USER salesdm IDENTIFIED by password;
B. You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode, and start cloning the source
database:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY;
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev FROM salesprd;
C. You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY;
In the development CDB, you create a databaselink "PRD" that connects to the root of the source
CDB, and start cloning the source PDB:
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdevFROM salesprd@prd;
D. Connected as the salesprd local DBA, you create an XML using:
SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salespdb UNPLUG INTO ' /tmp/salesprd-xml' ;
Copy the XML file and all salesprd-related files to the target CDB and start plugging the copy into
the development CDB using:
SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdevUSING' /tmp/salesprd.xml';
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement about Storage Snapshot Optimization is correct?
A. It enables you to use third-party technologies to take a storage snapshot of your database
without putting the database in BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part
of the database.
B. It enables you to use RMAN to take a storage snapshot of your database. The database must be in
BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part of the database.
C. It enables you to use RMAN to take a storage snapshot of your database. The database doesn't
have to be in BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part of the database.
D. It enables you to use third-party technologies to take a storage snapshot of your database. The
database must be in BACKUP mode. You can then use the snapshot to recover all or part of the
database.
Answer: A

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Reference:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01 /backup.121 /e17630/release_changes.htm#BRADV276 (new
features, third bullet)

NO.7 Which three statements are true about System Global Area (SGA)?
A. SGA contains shared memory structures for all Oracle processes running on a single server.
B. Each server process has its own SGA.
C. SGA is allocated automatically when a database is started.
D. SGA is used to speed up queries by caching data blocks, program data, information about
database objects, and query results
E. SGA is allocated automatically when a database is mounted.
F. SGA is read and written by server and background processes.
Answer: C,D,F

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NO.8 A DBA informs you that an Oracle instance has started. What does this imply?
A. Users can access the data in the database.
B. Only SGA has been allocated for the database.
C. Only background and user processes are running.
D. Memory areas have been allocated and background processes have been started.
Answer: D

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Questions et réponses: 86 Q&As

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NO.1 Your customer wants to use Hybrid Columnar Compression to get maximum compression on their data.
Which option represents a best practice for achieving this goal?
A. Load compressed files with Direct Path loading
B. Sort incoming data on a column with a low cardinality
C. Use DBFS and external flies to load the data
D. Use Data Pump to load data
Answer: C

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NO.2 What model of the Exadata Database Machine come with 3 Infiniband switches?
A. Quarter Rack of X2-2
B. Half Rack of X2-2
C. Full Rack of X2-2
D. All models
Answer: C (B,C)

NO.3 Which statement would you make about sharing I/O resources in an Exadata environment?
A. You can manage workloads within a database with Database Resource Manager.
B. You can manage workloads across multiple databases with Database Resource Manager.
C. You can manage workloads within a database with 10 Resource Manager.
D. You cannot manage workloads across multiple databases.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Your customer has designated a number of database objects to be kept persistently in the Exadata
Smart Flash Cache. What happens if the total size of these objects is greater than 80% of the size of the
available Exadata Smart Flash Cache?
A. Nothing
B. Exadata Smart Flash Cache expands the allocation to hold the objects.
C. Not all objects will be stored in Exadata Smart Flash Cache.
D. Overall performance is increased as more objects fit into Exadata Smart Flash Cache.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statement properly describes potential allocation for a grid disk?
A. A grid disk must use all of a cell disk.
B. A grid disk can only use portions of a cell disk across all cells.
C. A grid disk can use portions of a cell disk on a subset of cells.
D. A grid disk can span multiple Exadata Storage Server ceils.
Answer: C

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NO.6 If a hard drive is removed from a storage cell, what must you do?
A. Nothing.
B. The cell must be rebooted.
C. You must alter ASM to alert It
D. You must recreate any grid disks that use the drive.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What does the role attribute of a DB plan Indicate?
A. The role specified for the category
B. The role specified for the user
C. The role specified In a Data Guard environment
D. The role specified for the application
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which types of data are most likely to be cached In the Exadata SmartFlash Cache?
A. Results of random reads.
B. Results of table scans.
C. Write to a mirror
D. Redo data
E. All data is cached In the Flash Cache
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-202
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Siebel 8 Consultant Exam)
Questions et réponses: 146 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-024
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Performance Tuning)
Questions et réponses: 92 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-043
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle database 10g:Administration ii)
Questions et réponses: 186 Q&As

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NO.1 You are using an Automatic Storage Management (ASM) instance to manage the files of your
production database. You have two disk groups, DG1 and DG2 with one device each.
In the parameter file of the production database, the following parameters have been specified:
DB_CREATE_ONLINE_LOG_DEST_1 = '+dg1'
DB_CREATE_ONLINE_LOG_DEST_2 = '+dg2'
What would be the impact of this setting?
A.When a new log group is added, it would have one member in each disk group.
B.When a new log group is added, it would have two members in each disk group.
C.When a new tablespace is added, it would have one data file in each disk group.
D.When a new log file is added, it would have one member spread across the disk groups.
Answer: A

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NO.2 In your database, online redo log files are multiplexed and one of the members in a group is lost due to
media failure? How would you recover the lost redo log member?
A.import the database from the last export
B.restore all the members in the group from the last backup
C.drop the lost member from the database and then add a new member to the group
D.restore all the database files from the backup and then perform a complete recovery
E.restore all the database files from the backup and then perform an incomplete recovery
Answer: C

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NO.3 You observe that a database performance has degraded over a period of time. While investigating the
reason, you find that the size of the database buffer cache is not large enough to cache all the needed
data blocks.
Which advisory component would you refer to, in order to determine that required size of the database
buffer cache?
A.Memory Advisor
B.Segment Advisor
C.SQL Tuning Advisor
D.SQL Access Advisor
E.Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
Answer: A

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NO.4 You work as a database administrator at certkiller.com. Your database is open and running in
ARCHIVELOG mode. You take RMAN full backups every Sunday night. On Monday morning, while
querying the user1.employees table, you receive the following error message:
01578. ORACLE data block corrupted (file # 5, block # 51)
ORA-01110: data file 5: '/u01/app/oracle/oradata/orcl/example01.dbf'
You need to rectify the corruption while ensuring the following:
The data file should remain online.
The mean time to recover (MTTR) should be minimal.
You are not using a backup control file and all the archived logs are accessible. Which option would you
choose?
A.flash back the corrupted blocks
B.use the DBMS_REPAIR package
C.use the RMAN TSPITR command
D.use the RMAN BLOCKRECOVER command
E.use the RESTORE DATABASEand RECOVER DATABASE commands
F.investigate the time at which the corruption occurred and perform a point-in-time recovery
Answer: D

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NO.5 The current time is 12:00 noon. You want to recover the USERS tablespace from a failure that
occurred at 11:50 a.m.You discover that the only member of an unarchived redo log group containing
information from 11:40 a.m. onwards is corrupt.
With reference to this scenario, if you are not using Recovery Manager (RMAN), which recovery method
would you use?
A.time-based recovery
B.log sequence recovery
C.cancel-based recovery
D.change-based recovery
Answer: C

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NO.6 Immediately after adding a new disk to or removing an existing disk from an Automatic Storage
Management (ASM) instance, you find that the performance of the database decreases initially, until the
addition or removal process is completed. Performance then gradually returns to normal levels.
Which two activities could you perform to maintain a consistent performance of the database while adding
or removing disks? (Choose two.)
A.increase the number of checkpoint processes
B.define the POWER option while adding or removing the disks
C.increase the number of DBWR processes by setting up a higher value for DB_WRITER_PROCESSES
D.increase the number of slave database writer processes by setting up a higher value for
DBWR_IO_SLAVES
E.increase the number of ASM Rebalance processes by setting up a higher value for
ASM_POWER_LIMIT during the disk addition or removal
Answer: BE

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NO.7 Consider the following configuration:
/devices/D1 is a member of disk group dgroupA.
/devices/D2 is a member of disk group dgroupA.
/devices/D3 is a member of disk group dgroupA.
You plan to add a new disk,/devices/D4 to the disk group dgroupA.
You execute the following command:
SQL> ALTER DISKGROUP dgroupA ADD DISK '/devices/D*';
Which task would be accomplished by the command?
A.The command adds the new disk, D4, to the disk group.
B.The command would result in an error because the is no disk by the name "'/devices/D*'"
C.The command will be ignored because disks starting with "D" are already members of the disk group.
D.The command would result in an error because no wildcard characters can be used in the disk name.
E.The command first detaches all the member disks starting with "D", and the reattaches them including
the new disk.
Answer: A

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NO.8 View the Exhibit.
In your production database, the total waits and the time waited for log file parallel write are significantly
high. While investigating the reason, you find that there are three redo log groups with two members in
each group, and all redo log members are places on a single physical disk.
What action would you take to minimize the waits?
Exhibit:
A.start the log writer slave processes
B.increase the number of redo log files
C.increase the size of the redo log buffer
D.place the redo log files on the different disks
E.increase the number of log writer processes
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 1z0-590
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle VM 3 for x86 Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 82 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-523
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Application Grid Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 73 Q&As

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NO.1 In a typical production environment, which server(s) hosts the application?
A. Node Server
B. Administration Server
C. Managed Server
D. Configuration Server
Answer: C

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NO.2 Node Manager is a WebLogic Server ______ that enables you to start, shut down, and restart
Administration Server and Managed Server instances from a remote location.
A. Instance
B. Utility
C. Destination
D. Ouster
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two statements are true about the Application Grid?
A. Application Grid computing brings key industry-leading technologies like MS IIS and Grade WebLogic
Server together.
B. Application Grid computing promotes well architected sharing of resources.
C. Application Grid computing is based on Oracle's RAC technology.
D. Application Grid computing results in more predictable behavior through better Instrumentation and
more optimal allocation of resources.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Which three of the following are considered Fixed Asset Depreciation Rule Components?
A. International Depreciation Methods
B. Header
C. Annual Rules
D. Rule Conventions
E. Predefined Depreciation Methods
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 Coherence provides the ideal infrastructure for building _____ services, and the ______ applications.
A. Data Grid, Client and Server based
B. Ouster, Client and Server based
C. Data Grid, DNS based
D. Cloud cluster, Client and Server based
Answer: A

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NO.6 A. Oracle WebLogic Server
B. Oracle Coherence
C. Oracle Database
D. Oracle Real Time Operations Control
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 As a best practice, what would you change in the following command line to create successful domain
template "My WebLogic Domain"?
Pack-domain=C:\oracle\user_projects\domains\mydomain
-template=C:\oracle\user_templates\mydomain -template_name="My WebLogic Domain"
A. Pack -domain=C:\oracle\user__projects\domains\mydomain.dll
template=C:\oracle\user_templates\mydomain.jar -template_name="My WebLogic Domain"
B. Pack-domain=C:\oracle\user_projects\domains\mydomain.jar
template=C:\oracle\userJ:emplates\mydomain -template_name=nMy WebLogic Domain"
C. Pack -domain=C:\oracle\user_projects\domains\mydomain
template=C:\oracle\user_templates\mydornain.jar -template_name="My WebLogic Domain"
D.Pack-domain=C:\oracle\user_projects\domains\mydomain.jar
template=C:\oracle\user_templates\mydomain.jar -template_name="My WebLogic Domain"
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which interface provides the ability to see changes in real-time as they occur?
A. ConcunentMap
B. java. util. AbstractMap
C. ObservableMap
D. InvocableMap
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-060
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Upgrade to Oracle Database 12c)
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-466
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Project Lifecycle Management Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

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NO.1 According to the recommended training for this exam, what is the definition of a project?
A. A sequence of tasks with a beginning and an end, bound by time, responses, and desired results
B. Anything for which there is an executed contact
C. A sequence of tasks for there is a Statement work
D. A sequence of tasks with a specified end date
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is not true about risk management in OUM Manage?
A. The project manager should regularly conduct risk assessments.
B. Risks become even more critical during the Project Execution and Control Phase.
C. Particular attention should be paid to risks prior to production cutover.
D. If a baseline risk assessment is done during the Project Startup phase, there are no further risk
assessment required on the project.
Answer: D

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NO.3 At the end of iteration phase, during Project Execution and Control, which three key tasks
should be conducted?
A. QM.050 Perform Quality Assurance
B. WM.050 ManageApprovals
C. CMM.030 Manage Project Team Communication
D. PKM.020 Conduct Baseline Risk Assessment
E. SM.060 Close Scope management
F. PKM.060 Conduct Post-Production Risk Assessment
G. OCHM.040 Establish Follow-Up process
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 What is not true about planning in OUM?
A. OUM has been developed with the intent that the approach for a given project be built up from a
core set of activities.
B. Projects should be tailored down from the full OUM work breakdown structures.
C. OUM takes an iterative and incremental approach to planning a project.
D. Tasks within OUM are considered place holders for work.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Incorrect: Not A:OUM is designed to support a broad range of project types. As such, it must be
flexible andscalable. The appropriate point of balance for a given project will vary based on a
number of project risk and scale factors. The method has been developed with the intent that the
approach for a given project be "built up" from a core set of activities to implement an appropriate
level of discipline, rather than "tailored down".
Not C:OUM recognizes the advantages of an iterative and incremental approach to development
and deployment of information systems. Any of the tasks within OUM may be iterated. Whether or
not to iterate, as well as the number of iterations, varies. Tasks may be iterated to increase quality of
the work products to a desired level, to add sufficient level of detail, or to refine and expand the
work products on the basis of user feedback.

NO.5 Which is true about OUM Manage?
A. It emphasizes clearly documenting the scope of the project and the exact procedures to
implement changes to this scope.
B. It is not possible to control the project timeline without a detailed project plan.
C. It is necessary to only document the items in the scope.
D. If the project sponsor requires a functional change, the project team must comply with the
request.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The Manage focus area is organized into 13 processes: Bid Transition (A)Scope Management
Financial Management
Work Management Risk Management Issue and Problem Management Staff Management
Communication Management Quality Management Configuration Management Infrastructure
Management Procurement Management Organizational Change Management
Collectively, these processes form a comprehensive set of tasks required to manage Oracle-based
development and implementation projects. Every project includes most, if not all, of these
processes, whether they are the responsibility of a consulting organization, a client organization, or
a third party.

NO.6 What describes the nature of the activities within the Project Execution and Control phase?
A. They are dependent upon one another.
B. They are dependent upon earned value.
C. They are ongoing.
D. They are grouped according to priority.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which is the type of closure described as the mechanical an analytical step associated with the
closure of a project or phase?
A. Contractual
B. Typical
C. Intra-business
D. Conventional
Answer: A

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NO.8 Select the three key project roles as prescribed by OUM Manage.
A. Stakeholder
B. Change Control Board
C. Issue Review Board
D. Project Team
E. Testing Committee
Answer: A,B,D

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Explanation:
A:Project managers use OUM to make sure they and their stakeholders develop a shared
understanding of what is needed, choose an appropriate architecture, and transfer the ownership of
the end-product to the stakeholders.
B:CCB(Change Control Board)is a review committee that discusses and approves requests for
changes to On Demand customer system configurations. The change requests are fulfilled in the
following ways:
A work guideline is generated by engineering for operations to use and implement.
The changes are included in Oracle Certified Configurations.
D:Project teams to take advantage of this experience by

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Code d'Examen: 1Z1-456
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Customer Relationship Management 11g Sales Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z1-478
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle SOA Suite 11g Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

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NO.1 In your solution, a web service client needs to invoke a series of three web services in support
of a single transaction. The third web service needs the identity of the original web service client.
Which statement describes how the identity is made available by Oracle Web Services Manager
(OWSM)?
A. The transaction manager accesses an internal table that maintains credentials used to invoke
each individual web service in the chain.
B. Each web service in the chain does its own authentication so the third web service handles its
own identity checking.
C. OWSM sets the user in the Java Authentication and Authorization (JAAS) Subject when the first
web service successfully authenticates, and the Java Subject is used by subsequent web services to
access the identity.
D. OWSM stores a SAML token from the first web service invocation in a database table, and that
table is accessed by subsequent web services in the chain to retrieve identity.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Oracle Web Services Manager is a component of the Oracle Enterprise Manager Fusion Middleware
Control, a run-time framework that provides centralized management and governance of Oracle
SOA Suite environments and applications. You create and configureOracle Web Services Manager
policies in Oracle Enterprise Manager, and those policies are persisted in a policy store (a database
is recommended). Oracle Web Services Manager lets you define policies against an LDAP directory
and generate standard security tokens (such as SAML tokens) to propagate identities across multiple
Web services used in a single transaction.

NO.2 Identify two features of Oracle BAM.
A. Enterprise Manager's monitoring capabilities are central to Oracle BAM's ability to monitor
performance indicators.
B. You can analyze and present Information from activities spanning multiple systems and
applications.
C. Rich browser-based dashboards provide visibility into current values of key performance
indicators (KPIs).
D. There is a built-in trouble ticket system to track assignment and completion of corrective actions.
Answer: A,C

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Explanation:
Note: *Oracle Business Activity Monitoring (Oracle BAM) gives business executives the ability to
monitor their business services and processes in the enterprise, to correlate KPIs down to the actual
business process themselves, and most important, to change business processes quickly or to take
corrective action if the business environment changes.

NO.3 Which two features are provided by decision tables?
A. Sets of input data can be bucketed and reviewed for gaps.
B. Data sets can be reviewed for conflicts.
C. Data can be used for only one rule evaluation.
D. A rule evaluation can be used only to enter new output data.
Answer: A,B

Oracle examen   1Z1-478   1Z1-478 examen   1Z1-478 examen
Explanation:
After you create a Decision Table there are operations that you may want to perform on the
Decision Table, including the following:
(A)Find and fix gaps in a Decision Table (B)Finding and resolving conflicts between rules in a
Decision Table Compact or split cells in a Decision Table Merge a condition or split a condition in a
Decision Table
A: *Compact the Decision Table
In this step you compact the rules to merge from eighteen rules to nine rules. This automatically
eliminates the rules that are not needed and preserves the no gap, no conflict properties for the
Decision Table.
*The Conditions area in a Decision Table includes one or more condition rows. Each condition row
has a condition expression and, for each rule, a condition cell. A condition expression is an
expression that you build in Rules Designer. The condition expression is often a fact property or a
function result, but it can be any expression that has a type that can be associated with a bucketset.
B:A Decision Table displays multiple related rules in a single spreadsheet-style view. In Rules
Designer a Decision Table presents a collection of related business rules with condition rows, rules,
and actions presented in a tabular form that is easy to understand. Business users can compare cells
and their values at a glance and can use Decision Table rule analysis features by clicking icons and
selecting values in Rules Designer to help identify and correct conflicting or missing cases.

NO.4 Which two approaches are valid when using dynamic partner links in a BPEL process?
A. A WSDL file, which contains multiple services that use the same portType, is available at design
time, but the decision to determine which service is used can only be made at runtime.
B. When the BPEL process is designed, the endpoint URL of the WSDL file is known but the services
and port types are not known.
C. When the BPEL process is designed, the services and port types of the WSDL file are known but
the endpoint URI is not known.
D. A WSDL file, which contains multiple services that use different portTypes, is available at design
time, but the decision to determine which server us used can only be made at runtime.
Answer: A,C

certification Oracle   1Z1-478   certification 1Z1-478
Explanation:
A (not D):How To Create a Dynamic Partner Link at Design Time for Use at Runtime
To create a dynamic partner link at design time for use at runtime:
etc
C (not B):The BPEL specification mandates that only the partner endpoint reference (EPR) can be
changed dynamically. In BPEL terms, only the partnerRole of a partner link element can have a new
value assigned. The myRole value doesn't change after the BPEL has been deployed.
Note: *Dynamic Partner Links and Dynamic Addressing During the design-time of an application,
you may need to configure certain services whose endpoints (addresses) are not known beforehand,
or it may be necessary to change an endpoint reference while the application is running. The
Dynamic Partner link feature allows you to dynamically assign an endpoint reference to the partner
link. This means that you can use onepartner link for subsequent calls to different web-services
(provided that the services use the same interface). *For successful deployment of the process, a
partner link should be completely defined. When you deploy the project, the WSDL file for the
partner link should contain and define both the abstract and the concrete information for the
partner link, including address and port, though later the concrete information can be changed
independently from the WSDL file.

NO.5 Identify two correct descriptions of Oracle Web Services Manager (OWSM).
A. It enables you to externalize web services security from the applications youbuild.
B. It manages policies in a distributed policy manager that serves as a single policy enforcement
point.
C. Use security and management events, captured by OWSM agents, are displayed using Oracle
BAM.
D. It supplies predefined security policies that enable declarative security and management
definition.
E. It uses Oracle Event Processing (OEP) to determine when security violations have occurred.
Answer: B,C

Oracle   certification 1Z1-478   certification 1Z1-478   certification 1Z1-478
Explanation:
Note: *Oracle WSM allows companies to (1) centrally define and store declarative policies applied
to the multiple web services making up a SOA infrastructure, (2) locally enforce security and
management policies through configurable agents, and (3) monitor runtime security events such as
failed authentication or authorization.
*Oracle Web Services Manager offers a comprehensive and easy-to-use solution for policy
management and security of service infrastructure. It provides visibility and control of the policies
through a centralized administration interface offered by Oracle Enterprise Manager.

NO.6 A partner needs to access services that are defined in one of your Service Composite
Architecture (SCA) applications via a web service interface. Which approach (and accompanying
reasoning) describes a loosely coupled and robust solution?
A. Use Oracle Service Bus to provide an Interface layer over your SCA application. This enables you
to hide the locations of your SCA application, perform load-balancing across those endpoints, and
provide the ability to define service level agreements to help ensure that you are meeting your
contractual obligations to the partner.
B. Use the Mediator component to provide a web service interface to your SCA application. This
arrives you the flexibility of using the industry standard XSLT technology to perform translation and
transformations.
C. Use Oracle Service Bus to provide an interface layer over your SCA application. This enables you
to "skin" your SCA application with a web service interface and still provide a robust experience to
the partner.
D. Allow the partner simply to connect directly to the SCA application. This provides the best
performance and helps keep the partner happy.
Answer: B

Oracle   certification 1Z1-478   certification 1Z1-478   1Z1-478

NO.7 You expand a business rule component that a colleague added to the BPEL process. You see an
Assign element named Facts_To_Rule_Service.
Which statement is true bout this Assign element?
A. It was added automatically based on entries that your colleague made in the dialog box that
approved when the business rule component was added to the BPEL model.
B. Your colleague manually added this Assign element after adding the business rule component to
the BPEL Model.
C. This Assign element was automatically added when your colleague manually addedthe
corresponding Rule_Service_To_Facts assign to the BPEL model.
D. You can delete this Assign because it was created for documentation purposes only.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Note: *Facts_To_Rule_Service: Assigns the facts to a variable.

NO.8 When more than one policy is attached to a policy subject, the combination of policies needs
to be valid. Which statement is true about the valid combination of policies for a policy subject?
A. Only one MTOM policy can be attached to a policy subject.
B. More than one Reliable Messaging policy can be attached to a policy subject.
C. Both a Reliable Messaging policy and a WS-Addressing policy cannot be attached to the same
policy subject.
D. Only one security policy can be attached to a policy subject.
Answer: A

Oracle   certification 1Z1-478   1Z1-478 examen   1Z1-478
Explanation:
Note:
*Within a SOA composite application, you must attach the Oracle WS-MTOM policy to service and
reference binding components to receive and send MTOM (MIME binary) attachments within
Oracle SOA Suite.
*Message Transmission Optimization Mechanism (MTOM)
Ensures that attachments are in MTOM format. This format enables binary data to be sent to and
from web services. This reduces the transmission size on the wire.
*ReliabilityPolicy
Supports the WS-Reliable Messaging protocol. This guarantees the end-to-end delivery of
messages.
* Addressing Policy Verifies that simple object access protocol (SOAP) messages include
WS-Addressing headers in conformance with the WS-Addressing specification. Transport-level data
is included in the XML message rather than relying on the network-level transport to convey this
information.