EMC meilleur examen E20-517 E20-322 E20-670, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: E20-517
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators)
Questions et réponses: 192 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E20-322
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Technology Architect Solutions Design)
Questions et réponses: 568 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E20-670
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Networked Storage-CAS Installation/Troubleshooting Specialst)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three of the following are benefits of Cisco TAC? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Direct or indirect access to the global Cisco TAC organization
B. The ability to access teams of experts
C. Onsite engineering support
D. Minimizes risks associated with network downtime
E. Upgrades from base Cisco IOS Software to advanced feature set Cisco IOS Software
F. Project management and planning support
Answer: ABD

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NO.2 Which type of deployment utilizes ISRs with Cisco IOS Security feature sets to provide an ideal,
low-cost, yet capable and powerful platform?
Select the best response.
A. Small deployments
B. Large deployments
C. Medium deployments
D. Commercial deployments
E. Financial deployments
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the key element in SMB solutions?
Select the best response.
A. They provide the lowest possible cost.
B. They reduce the cost and complexity associated with multiple services in a single device.
C. They reduce complexity by eliminating features.
D. Consumer-level products are suitable for SMB needs.
E. Reliability is not important since replacement products are inexpensive.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which port number is used to communicate to an SMTP server?
A. 20 or 21
B. 22
C. 25
D. 321
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are the three commonly recognized top-level business drivers for data centers? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Protecting the business from information outages
B. A need to decentralize IT assets
C. Increasing the rate of adoption of new, nonstandardized technologies
D. Optimizing the efficiency with which IT operates
E. An increased need for specialized IT silos
F. Growing IT systems
Answer: ADF

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NO.6 Which layer of the OSI model does FTP use?
A. Application
B. Data link
C. Network
D. Transport
Answer: A

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NO.7 In the OSI model, which layer would a router be defined in?
A. Data link
B. Network
C. Network interface
D. Transport
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which network topology best describes how EMC Centera nodes are networked together?
A. Bus
B. Mesh
C. Ring
D. Star
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: E20-520
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Calriion solutions specialist exam)
Questions et réponses: 520 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E20-895
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Backup Recovery - Avamar Expert Exam for Implementation Engineers)
Questions et réponses: 211 Q&As

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NO.1 An EMC customer is using NetWorker with integrated Avamar deduplication nodes. They have expired
a large amount of data on the NetWorker server. After several hours, they notice that the index entries
have been deleted from NetWorker. However, data has not been removed from the deduplication node.
What is a potential reason?
A. Garbage collection has not yet occurred on the deduplication node
B. Data must also be manually expired from within Avamar
C. Garbage collection has been suspended on the NetWorker server
D. Saveset metadata has not been purged from the storage node
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer has an EMC Avamar system backing up a Celerra running DART 6.0 using a single 36 GB
NDMP Accelerator Node. They are also going to back up a VNX OE 7.0 system using the same NDMP
Accelerator. Each NAS device has four volumes configured on it. Backups will be configured on the
Avamar system for both NAS storage devices to start at the same time.
What will occur when the NDMP backups start using default settings?
A. Both backups will start with two active streams each
B. One NAS device will start its backup with four streams, the other will queue
C. One NAS device will start its backup with one stream, the other will queue
D. Both backups will start with one stream each
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer is successfully backing up 50 virtual machines (VMs) hosted on two ESX hosts. There are
two datastores and two proxy servers used for VADP-based backups. They deploy another proxy server
to backup 10 new VMs residing on a new datastore. The backups for the new VMs failed with the
following error:
Event Code: 30931 - Failed to initiate a backup or restore of a virtual machine because no proxy was
found to service the virtual machine. What caused this error?
A. Not enough space is allocated on the proxy server to mount VM snaps
B. Proxy server is not provisioned on the new datastore
C. Proxy host has not been given backup privilege in the vCenter
D. New datastore is not selected for the proxy server in Avamar Administrator
Answer: D

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NO.4 An EMC Avamar backup administrator wants to use their company login account for administering an
Avamar server. The procedures were followed successfully to update the configuration for external LDAP
authentication. However, they still cannot successfully log into Avamar Administrator with the account.
Which action is needed?
A. Assign a default password to the account in Avamar
B. Add the account to the Avamar server O/S
C. Add the user account to Avamar and assign a role
D. Add an Avamar domain with the same name as the LDAP domain
Answer: C

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NO.5 An EMC Avamar customer has a Celerra running DART 6.0 with 20 TB of data. There are approximately
10 million files distributed across two Data Movers. They would like to backup the NAS in approximately
five hours. What is the maximum number of streams that can be configured?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer has an EMC Avamar integrated with a Data Domain system as a backup solution. They
would like to use encryption for the backups that are directed to the Data Domain system.
Which method(s) of encryption can be used in this environment?
A. Enable encryption-at-rest on the Data Domain system
B. Enable in-flight encryption between the client and the Data Domain system
C. Both in-flight encryption and encryption-at-rest are not supported
D. Enable both in-flight encryption and encryption-at-rest
Answer: A

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NO.7 An EMC employee has been assigned to run securedelete against two clients for a total of 20 GBs on
an Avamar server. During a planning discussion with the customer, they want to know what the impact on
their Avamar server would be while securedelete is running.
What is the correct response to the customer?
A. GSAN will be in admin mode and the Avamar server will be read only
B. Avamar will continue to function with a limited amount of available threads
C. GSAN will be shut down during the extent of the securedelete task
D. Avamar will continue to function without any limitations
Answer: A

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NO.8 An EMC Avamar customer is currently using a 2 TB Avamar Virtual Edition (AVE) for their backup
environment. They want to begin backing up several Oracle databases and file servers running on a new
ESX server. It is determined that a separate AVE should be added to the backup environment for these
new backups.
What should be done when implementing the new configuration?
A. Install the new AVE on a different ESX server from the first AVE
B. Use thin provisioning to create the new AVE
C. Run benchmark tests for acceptable TCP/IP performance
D. Use RAID 6 for the physical disk storing the new virtual disk
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E20-891
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Backup Recovery Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects)
Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

Code d'Examen: E20-495
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Content Management xCelerated Composition Platform Application Development Exam)
Questions et réponses: 182 Q&As

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NO.1 After defining a package, a developer selects the This package can be used to generate reports check
box.
Where does the application developer enable audit trail settings to publish reporting data?
A. Process Reporting Services
B. the process template
C. TaskSpace
D. the package definition
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which xCP component executes automatic runtime activities such as Queue Item Prioritization and
Outbound System Integration activities?
A. TaskSpace
B. Process Engine
C. Process Integrator
D. Content Server
Answer: B

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NO.3 An insurance claims process invokes a child process that is used to determine whether the person
making the claim has secondary insurance. During the child process, a Boolean value,
has_other_insurance, is set by a task processor.
How should the has_other_insurance data item be defined so that the data can be shared between the
parent process and child process?
A. as a process parameter
B. as a structured data type
C. as a simple process variable
D. as an attribute of a package
Answer: D

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NO.4 Where are exceptions from Outbound Activity templates logged?
A. bpm.log
B. log4j.log
C. bps.log
D. server.log
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which optional xCP product provides document capture and indexing from a customizable web
interface?
A. Informative Graphics Brava!
B. Application Xtender
C. Kofax Capture Enterprise
D. Captiva eInput
Answer: D

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NO.6 During single-user testing, the task list of a TaskSpace application takes over 10 seconds to render.
What is the EMC recommended method for an application developer to identify the DQL queries that may
be the cause of the problems?
A. Turn on database level tracing and give the trace data to an experienced DBA.
B. Enable DFC tracing on the TaskSpace application server and convert the trace file to an Excel-friendly
format using traceD6.awk.
C. Install a proxy on the client machine and monitor the traffic with the TaskSpace application server
when clicking on the task list.
D. Set the last_sql_trace flag in the repository's server.ini on the Content Server and obtain all the queries
from the server log file.
Answer: B

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NO.7 An application developer needs to create a business process template that allows a user to modify
individual task instructions for new process instances without having to uninstall the process template.
How should the task instructions be stored?
A. in text documents stored in the repository
B. in a structured data type
C. in process variables
D. in process parameters
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which xCP component is responsible for providing page serving and managing annotations on
documents?
A. Documentum Collaboration Services
B. Documentum PDF Annotation Services
C. Document Image Services
D. TaskSpace
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: E20-598
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Backup and Recovery - Avamar Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators)
Questions et réponses: 177 Q&As

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NO.1 Based on the exhibit, which type of backup configuration is represented?
A. Image Level Backup with VADP (vSphere)
B. VMware Guest Level Backup
C. VMware Consolidated Backup (VCB)
D. VMware Console Backup
Answer: A

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NO.2 In an EMC Avamar backup operation, which process always produces identical chunk results given the
same data?
A. Sticky-byte factoring
B. Compression
C. File caching
D. Hashing
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which tool is used to move a client to a new domain in EMC Avamar 6.0?
A. Client Manager
B. Activation Manager
C. Enterprise Manager
D. Installation Manager
Answer: A

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NO.4 How many simultaneous client connections per node will an EMC Avamar server support?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 18
D. 25
Answer: C

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NO.5 A storage node in a multi-node Avamar server has failed and a replacement node has been added to
the grid. What is used to reconstruct the data on the new node?
A. RAIN
B. RAID
C. Checkpoint
D. Replication
Answer: A

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NO.6 What are three types of EMC Avamar hashes?
A. Composite, Root, and Atomic
B. Root, Atomic, and Index
C. Composite, Atomic, and Stripe
D. Root, Atomic, and Parity
Answer: A

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NO.7 For each file that is backed up in an EMC Avamar system, how many total bytes are added to the file
cache.?
A. 20
B. 24
C. 40
D. 44
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which size Avamar Gen4 storage node is supported for a RAIN configuration?
A. 1.0 TB
B. 1.3 TB
C. 2.6 TB
D. 3.9 TB
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is used by EMC Avamar to provide system-wide fault tolerance?
A. RAID, RAIN, Checkpoints, and Replication
B. RAID, RAIN, Checkpoints, and HFS check
C. Asynchronous crunching, Parity, RAIN, and Checkpoints
D. HFS check, RAIN, RAID, and Replication
Answer: A

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NO.10 On an EMC Avamar server, what is the file extension of stripes that contain backup chunks?
A. *.dat
B. *.usd
C. *.chd
D. *.cdt
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which hash type represents an individual data chunk processed during an EMC Avamar backup?
A. Atomic
B. Root
C. Composite
D. Metadata
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which interface is used to start Avamar Client Manager?
A. Enterprise Manager
B. Command Line
C. cron job
D. Avamar Administrator
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which four account management actions can be performed from the EMC Client Manager interface?
A. Move clients to a new server Retire clients Move clients to a new domain View management log
B. Move clients to a new domain Retire clients Modify client group associations Schedule backups
C. View management log Modify replication Retire clients Move clients to a new server
D. View management log Retire clients Delete clients Browse clients
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which processes are started automatically during an EMC Avamar Windows client installation?
A. avagent and avscc only
B. avtar and avagent only
C. avtar, avagent, and avscc
D. avscc and avtar only
Answer: A

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NO.15 A customer is unable to connect to their EMC Avamar server when using the Avamar Administrator
GUI. If default settings are being used, which port must be open for a successful connection?
A. 5555
B. 7778
C. 8443
D. 8080
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which time zone is used on EMC Avamar nodes?
A. Local time on the utility node; GMT/UTC on the storage nodes
B. GMT/UTC on the utility node; local time on the storage nodes
C. All node types use the local time
D. All nodes use GMT/UTC time
Answer: A

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NO.17 The EMC Avamar client needs to backup a file and has performed sticky-byte factoring. This
results in the following:
-Seven (7) chunks that will compress at 30%-Four (4) that will compress at 23%-Two (2) chunks at 50%
compression
How many chunks will be compressed prior to hashing?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 9
D. 13
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which port on the Avamar server does the client connect to when performing a backup with encryption
enabled?
A. 27000
B. 28001
C. 28002
D. 29000
Answer: D

certification EMC   E20-598   E20-598   certification E20-598   certification E20-598   E20-598 examen

NO.19 In EMC Avamar 6.0, which tool is used to completely move clients to a new Avamar server?
A. Client Manager
B. Enterprise Manager
C. Activation Manager
D. Avamar Administrator
Answer: A

EMC   E20-598   E20-598 examen

NO.20 What is a characteristic of variable block deduplication?
A. Better granularity and more efficiency
B. Commonly provided in snapshot technologies
C. Small changes require all segments to change
D. Most common deduplication method
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: EVP-100
Nom d'Examen: EMC (2011 VSE Consolidate Product & Technology Test)
Questions et réponses: 133 Q&As

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NO.1 Which (3) are considered software features of VNX.?
A. Unified IP based protocols
B. Aggregated Summary Capacity View
C. FibreChannel Connectivity
D. Simplified Management
E. Integrated Data Protection
F. Active/active ease of use
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.2 What feature of the VNX measures, monitors and controls application performance on the storage
system?
A. FASTVP
B. Unisphere Quality of Service Manager
C. Unisphere Analyzer
D. Data Compression
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which two (2) VNX Arrays will the Velocity partners focus their efforts on selling?
A. VNX5700
B. VNX5300
C. VNX5500
D. VNX7500
E. VNX5100
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 What feature of the VNX allows the array to move more active data to faster drives and less active
data to
slower drives?
A. FASTVP
B. FAST Cashe
C. Unisphere Analyzer
D. Data Compression
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which three (3) are considered software features of the VNXe?
A. integrated Data Protection
B. FibreChannel Connectivity
C. Active/active ease of use
D. Simplified Management
E. Unified IP based protocols
F. Aggregated Summary Capacity View
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.6 Which VNX Array is Block Based only?
A. VNX5100
B. VNX5500
C. VNX5300
D. VNX5700
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two (2) are key benefits of the VNX File Reduplication?
A. Reduced power costs
B. Improved application performance
C. Improved reliability of applications
D. Reduced reliance on short-term tape retention
E. Improved LAN and WAN performance
Answer: D,E

EMC   EVP-100   EVP-100   EVP-100   EVP-100   EVP-100

NO.8 What type of drive is best suited for environments where high IOPS is required?
A. SAS
B. Flash Drives
C. Fibre Channel
D. NL SAS
Answer: B

EMC   EVP-100   EVP-100

NO.9 When comparing the different software suites for the VNX, which one provides for automated,
application aware replication, monitoring, notification, and reporting via Replication Manager and Data
Protection Advisor for Replication Analysis?
A. Remote Protection Suite
B. Security and Compliance Suite
C. Local Protection Suite
D. Application Protection Suite
Answer: D

EMC   EVP-100   EVP-100   EVP-100

NO.10 Which two (2) new drive types were introduced with the VNX array family?
A. Enterprise Flash Drives
B. SAS
C. Fibre Channel
D. SATA Flash Drives
E. NL SAS
Answer: B,E

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NO.11 What is the term used to describe the total amount of Thin LUN user capacity that is configured in the
Pool and
is presented to the attached hosts?
A. Over Subscribed Capacity
B. Host Capacity
C. Subscribed Capacity
D. User Capacity
Answer: C

certification EMC   EVP-100   EVP-100 examen

NO.12 Zoning with World Wide Names is often referred to as what?
A. Host Zoning
B. Hard Zoning
C. WWNN Zoning
D. Soft Zoning
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which suite of software is the Unisphere Analyzer part of?
A. VNX Local Protection Suite
B. VNX Security and Compliance Suite
C. VNX Remote Protection Suite
D. VNX FAST Suite
Answer: D

EMC   certification EVP-100   certification EVP-100   EVP-100

NO.14 What feature of the VNX allows the array to free up space by eliminating redundant data?
A. Unisphere Analyzer
B. FASTVP
C. Data Compression
D. FAST Cashe
Answer: C

EMC examen   EVP-100   certification EVP-100   certification EVP-100   EVP-100

NO.15 Which compression state is being utilized when data compression is first enabled while background
setup
operations are performed by system?
A. Compressing
B. Compressed
C. Queued
D. Initializing
Answer: D

EMC   EVP-100   EVP-100   EVP-100

NO.16 Which three (3) protocols will the VNXe array work with?
A. iSCSI (file emulated)
B. Fibre Channel
C. FTP/SFTP
D. CIFS
E. iSCSI (native block)
F. NFS
Answer: A,D,F

certification EMC   EVP-100   EVP-100   EVP-100   EVP-100

NO.17 The VNX Total Protection Pack consists of which of the software suites?
A. VNX Security and Compliance Suite
B. VNX Local Protection Suite
C. VNX Remote Protection Suite
D. VNX FAST Suite
E. VNX Application Protection Suite
Answer: B,C,E

certification EMC   certification EVP-100   EVP-100   EVP-100

NO.18 What feature of the VNX allows the array to avoid cache misses and improves response time by
promoting data from Hard Disk Drives to Flash Drives?
A. FASTVP
B. Data Compression
C. Fash Cashe
D. Unisphere Analyzer
Answer: C

certification EMC   EVP-100   EVP-100   certification EVP-100

NO.19 What feature of the VNX allows the array to identify bottlenecks and hot-spots in the VNX storage
systems?
A. Data Compression
B. Unisphere Analyzer
C. FASTVP
D. FAST Cashe
Answer: B

certification EMC   EVP-100   EVP-100   EVP-100

NO.20 When comparing the different software suites for the VNXe, which one of the software suites provides
for file and block snapshots?
A. Remote Protection Suite
B. Application Protection Suite
C. Security and Compliance Suite
D. Local Protection Suite
Answer: D

EMC   EVP-100 examen   EVP-100

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Code d'Examen: E20-005
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Backup Recovery Systems and Architecture Exam)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Which type of backup should be used to create a backup copy offline without disrupting I/O operations
on a production volume?
A. Cumulative backup
B. Incremental backup
C. Full backup
D. Synthetic full backup
Answer: D

EMC   E20-005   E20-005   E20-005

NO.2 What is the primary reason for having disaster recovery backups?
A. To restore data from an alternate site due to data loss at a primary site
B. To restore data when data loss or logical corruptions occur during routine processing
C. To restore data that was archived for regulatory compliance
D. To restore data when data loss occurs due to minor hardware component failures
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is recovery point objective?
A. Maximum allowable time to fully recover an application
B. Actual time that it takes to recover all data
C. Amount of data loss that is acceptable by the business
D. Length of time that backups are kept for recovery purposes
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement defines retention period?
A. Amount of time available for restoring a particular version of a backup dataset
B. Amount of time available for overwriting a volume containing backups
C. Period of time in which a backup must be restored
D. Amount of time allocated for full system recovery
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are planning the staging policy for disk-to-offsite tape backup media. In addition to available disk
space, which factor is most significant when determining how long to keep the backup data on disk?
A. Length of time when most restore requests are expected to occur
B. Location of offsite storage
C. Cost of shipping and storing tapes
D. Tape capacity
Answer: A

EMC   E20-005   certification E20-005   certification E20-005

NO.6 A business has a recovery point objective (RPO) of nine hours. What does this RPO mean in the event
of a disaster?
A. No more than nine hours of production data can be lost
B. Restore from backup must occur within nine hours
C. Production must be resumed within nine hours
D. A backup copy of the production data must be obtained within nine hours
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer is moving data from a backup disk to tape, which will later will be stored offsite.
What is this process called?
A. Cloning
B. Staging
C. Aging
D. Mirroring
Answer: B

EMC examen   E20-005   certification E20-005   E20-005

NO.8 What is the interval of time between the creation and expiration of the backup called?
A. Retention period
B. Recovery point objective (RPO)
C. Recovery time objective (RTO)
D. Backup window
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-005   E20-005 examen   E20-005   E20-005

NO.9 Which disk connectivity option supports the highest data transfer rate?
A. SATA
B. SCSI
C. IDE
D. ATA
Answer: A

EMC   E20-005 examen   certification E20-005   E20-005 examen   E20-005

NO.10 A customer has a requirement to restore operations within two hours after a disaster.
What is this time period called?
A. Recovery time objective (RTO)
B. Retention period
C. Recovery point objective (RPO)
D. Backup window
Answer: A

EMC   E20-005 examen   E20-005   E20-005 examen   E20-005   certification E20-005

NO.11 A full backup of a file system is performed once a week on Saturday and cumulative backups are
performed on all other days. Backups start at 20:00 with a two-hour window. Data on the file system
changes every day.
How many backups are required to perform a full system restore as of Friday morning?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 1
D. 7
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-005   E20-005

NO.12 What terminology is used to describe grouping several physical drives into one logical drive?
A. Concatenation
B. Partitioning
C. Formatting
D. Grouping
Answer: A

EMC examen   certification E20-005   E20-005   E20-005

NO.13 What is the process of moving data from one storage medium to another?
A. Cloning
B. Replication
C. Staging
D. Twinning
Answer: C

EMC examen   E20-005   E20-005   E20-005 examen   E20-005

NO.14 What is the fault tolerance of a RAID 5 array, where n is the number of disks in the array?
A. 1
B. n-1
C. 2
D. n-2
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which software component of a backup application sends media metadata to the backup server?
A. Storage node
B. Client
C. NetWorker Management Console
D. Application server
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is the role of the storage node in a client/server backup architecture?
A. Writes data to a backup device
B. Gathers data to be backed up
C. Manages the backup operation
D. Writes metadata to the backup catalog
Answer: A

EMC   E20-005 examen   certification E20-005   certification E20-005   E20-005

NO.17 Which type of backup only copies the files that have changed since the last full backup.?
A. Cumulative
B. Full
C. Incremental
D. Synthetic full
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-005   E20-005 examen

NO.18 What are the components of a Logical Volume Manager (LVM)?
A. Physical volumes, volume groups, logical volumes
B. Physical groups, volume groups, logical volumes
C. Physical groups, volume groups, logical groups
D. Physical blocks, volume groups, logical groups
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-005   E20-005

NO.19 What is a benefit of deploying a separate storage node in the backup environment?
A. Reduced number of backups
B. Increased media utilization
C. Improved security and access control
D. Consolidate backup servers
Answer: D

EMC examen   certification E20-005   certification E20-005   E20-005

NO.20 What is an example of a PCI connection?
A. Parallel interface between a disk and the controller card
B. Interconnection between a CPU and network card
C. Serial connection between a disk and the controller card
D. Interconnection between a tape drive and a computer
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: E20-918
Nom d'Examen: EMC (IT-as-a-Service Expert Exam for Cloud Architects)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

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NO.1 A financial company has made several acquisitions within the past few years. They currently have two
primary data centers that are 50 km apart. Recently, an internal assessment was conducted to explore
ways to improve ingress/egress utilization and to extend their firewall to the cloud.
Which type of firewall would best suit their needs?
A. Reverse proxy servers
B. Federated
C. Load balanced reverse proxy servers
D. Linked VPN
Answer: B

EMC   certification E20-918   E20-918

NO.2 An enterprise decided to place some sensitive data in the public cloud and implemented security
mechanisms to protect this data.
Recently the public cloud provider's systems had a security breach. The enterprise was not concerned
because they felt their data had been completely protected. All of the services housing the data are
protected by an IPS application and no alerts were generated by the system.
How did the enterprise protect its data?
A. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted at-rest and in-transit. The encryption
keys were under complete control of the enterprise and were not available to the public provider.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were copied.
B. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted at-rest and in-transit. Copies of the
encryption keys were secured by the public cloud provider in case they were lost.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were neither accessed nor copied.
C. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted in-transit only. The encryption keys were
under complete control of the enterprise and were not available to the public provider.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were copied.
D. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted at-rest only. The encryption keys were
under complete control of the enterprise and were not available to the public provider.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were copied.
Answer: A

EMC   E20-918   E20-918 examen   E20-918

NO.3 The marketing line of business of an enterprise has deployed web services within a private cloud. They
wish to provide additional web services elastically and distribute them around the globe using a public
cloud provider.
The web services have a loosely coupled design and have no content dependencies on any resources in
the private cloud. They are created from a standard PaaS template, which includes an intrusion
prevention system that periodically polls a central management server for security updates. The IPS
management server is located within the private cloud. No layer 2 connectivity exists between the private
and public clouds. The consumers of these web services are distributed across the globe.
Which solution would you recommend to best support the web service elasticity and to minimize service
network latency for the consumer?
A. Implement an encrypted VPN tunnel between the private and public clouds.
B. Implement a global load balancing service as a front-end for the web services.
C. Increase bandwidth between the private cloud and the Internet.
D. Deploy a central database server to consolidate web service content.
Answer: B

EMC   E20-918   E20-918   E20-918

NO.4 An IT organization is currently 80% virtualized and the CIO is planning for the transition to ITaaS.
Senior executives are concerned that IT supports too many services and that many of the services are
neither efficient nor necessary.
What argument can the CIO make to address the executives' concerns and convince them that ITaaS is
the correct strategic decision?
A. ITaaS promotes the rationalization of services currently being offered by IT and offers the services that
provide business value through the service catalog.
B. A CMDB can be utilized during the instantiation of the services to improve service levels for the
consumers of IT services.
C. ITaaS offers an opportunity to evaluate whether certain IT services should be sourced with a public
cloud service provider.
D. ITaaS promotes the concept of on-demand self-service, allowing consumers to use only the services
from which they can derive business value.
Answer: A

EMC   E20-918   certification E20-918

NO.5 An organization wishes to move toward full ITaaS implementation. Their IT team is skilled, disciplined,
and exhibits strong teamwork. They have demonstrated the ability to deliver services with supporting
processes and regulations.
As their ITaaS consultant, you need to take them to the next level in the service orientation maturity model.
What is the next level?
A. Service Aligned
B. Service Aware
C. Service Capable
D. Service Neutral
Answer: A

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NO.6 An enterprise has decided to implement a new service that will process credit card information. They
will deploy this service within their private cloud. They have a relationship with a public cloud provider that
claims to be PCI compliant.
The enterprise wishes to implement a service that is PCI compliant with the least amount of effort. The
service is protected by a policy-based intrusion detection system. Cardholder data is securely transmitted
to the web interface.
Which additional design elements would best be suited for this implementation?
A. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent directly to
the credit card processing system. No credit card information is stored within the application.
B. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted, stored, and securely sent
directly to the credit card processing system. Credit card information is stored within the public cloud
provider using AES 128 encryption.
C. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent directly to
the credit card processing system. Credit card information is backed up to the private cloud system and
stored using AES 128 encryption.
D. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent to both the
credit card processing system and to private cloud for historical tracking and reporting only.
Answer: A

EMC   E20-918   E20-918   E20-918 examen

NO.7 A manufacturing company hired you to help them in their journey to a hybrid cloud. You conduct an
assessment and recommend migrating several existing Tier 2 applications to a public cloud provider. You
must work within the following constraints:
-Migration can be performed only during weekends -Only limited downtime is acceptable -The
configuration of the host and applications cannot be changed -The company needs to keep the costs as
low as possible -Although there are no specific performance requirements, they are concerned about the
quality
of the user experience
Which solution best addresses these needs?
A. Layer 2 extension with VPN connection over Internet with WAN optimization
B. Layer 3 connection over Internet with QoS
C. Layer 3 connection over Internet with WAN optimization
D. Layer 2 extension with dedicated link and WAN optimization
Answer: A

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NO.8 A large enterprise has several applications deployed in a hybrid cloud. Ever since the hybrid cloud was
deployed, the enterprise network operations center has never been able to fully reconcile network and
audit logs.
What should be investigated first as the possible source of the issue?
A. Confirm time is synchronized between locations
B. Filtering false positives
C. Exposing management APIs
D. Tenant in-control versus provider in-control differences
Answer: A

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NO.9 The IT group within a manufacturing organization is transforming their manual service offerings into
automated service offerings to be available from a service catalog. After reviewing the required KPIs for
the service, the service transition project manager asks you if the monitoring tools they currently employ
need to be replaced.
What criteria are needed to effectively monitor the required KPIs?
A. Can they measure, gather, analyze, and present the required metrics?
B. Can they control, automate, monitor and manage all elements of the service?
C. Can they provide end-to-end support of the services?
D. Can they integrate with the orchestration engine to provide automation?
Answer: A

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NO.10 The first phase of new ITaaS service introduces the offering to 10% of the engineering organization. The
IT organization leverages the management tools used in their traditional data center processes to provide
visibility into silos and control of the infrastructure. They also have adapted some ITSM concepts as a
framework for their management practices.
During the initial phase of the service deployment, a problem was encountered in one of the VMs.
The IT organization is concerned about the extensive amount of time and resources spent determining
the cause of the issue.
What is the most likely reason it takes more time than expected to resolve the problem?
A. The legacy management tools do not have the capability to provide a holistic view of the service
instance
B. The expertise of the service desk personnel is inadequate to properly handle service related issues
C. The complex nature of orchestration and automation makes problem identification and root cause
analysis unlikely.
D. The cultural hurdles that span organizational silos have not been addressed and resolved.
Answer: A

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NO.11 A hosting company has experienced a sudden increase in customer interest and wishes to implement
ITaaS. They are now hosting online shopping applications for several retail computer and electronics
companies.
Developers in the customer companies use their own internal credentials and have the ability to publish
applications and changes to their stores. Shoppers access these stores using a variety of mobile
applications and web browsers.
What should be addressed when migrating to ITaaS and implementing a service catalog for the retail and
electronic companies?
A. Integration with different authentication systems
B. Support for several different CMDB systems
C. Integration of multiple hypervisors
D. On-demand resource pool creation
Answer: A

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NO.12 A large service provider is designing a solution to protect itself against malicious content, such as
viruses in a SOAP attachment, and denial of service attacks.
Which type of firewall is most appropriate for their needs?
A. Linked VPNs
B. Federated
C. Reverse proxy servers
D. XML
Answer: D

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NO.13 An enterprise company has a large, virtualized data center. They are currently in the process of auditing
their virtual servers to ensure they are in compliance with regulatory requirements.
They want to be able to check new and existing virtual servers for compliance and automatically
remediate any virtual machines that are found to be out of compliance.
As a Cloud Architect, which product would you recommend for this purpose?
A. Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud (CIAC)
B. VMware vCenter Orchestrator
C. VMware vCenter Configuration Manager
D. RSA Archer eGRC Platform
Answer: C

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NO.14 A company is deploying a major new business application. The company has difficulty managing the
software development lifecycle. As a result, the time from generating requirements to operational delivery
is significant.
Which best addresses the company s need for shorter release cycles and better code quality?
A. Implement common collaboration tools
B. Utilize configuration management methodologies
C. Use of common automation and orchestration processes
D. Transition to a DevOps culture
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which metric measures the time taken to realize benefits from an ITaaS solution?
A. Time-to-value
B. Time-to-live
C. Time-to-deliver
D. Time-to-deploy
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E20-555
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Isilon Solutions and Design Specialist Exam for Technology Architects)
Questions et réponses: 225 Q&As

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NO.1 A Media and Entertainment company is considering changing from 2K resolution to 4K
resolution. They will continue to use the DNxHD 220 codec.
Assuming everything else stays the same, how will this change affect storage?
A. Storage will be half as large
B. Storage requirements will not change
C. Storage will be twice as large
D. Storage will be four times as large
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the maximum volume or aggregate size that can be created with an Isilon Scale-Out
NAS system?
A. 16 TB
B. 100 TB
C. 2.3 PB
D. 20 PB
Answer: D

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NO.3 Your customer uses an existing Isilon cluster consisting of five NL-Series nodes to source
broadcast media files for playback and streaming.The customer reports that the playback pauses
and stutters regularly. It has been confirmed that there are no network or playback system issues.
Which of the choices listed is the appropriate choice to address the playback issues?
A. Add three or more S-Series Nodes
B. Upgrade OneFS to the latest version
C. Enable SmartConnect Advanced
D. Enable Level 2 Caching
Answer: A

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NO.4 A NetApp customer is considering Isilon. They use their filers for UNIX home directories, and
would like to see a suggested configuration that would meet their needs.
What would you do to help size this cluster?
A. Ask for an autosupport file and upload it to MiTrends to generate a workflow profile
B. Ask them to install InsightIQ and collect data from the filer, then import to SQL for analysis
C. Ask for the output from nfsstat and upload it to MiTrends to generate a workflow profile
D. Use tcpdump and upload the output file to MiTrends to generate a protocol analysis
Answer: C

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NO.5 An Isilon customer created a scheduled SyncIQ policy to replicate data from an
Enterprise-mode SmartLock directory. The source cluster is now unusable and the target cluster
does not automatically allow writes to the data in the replicated SmartLock directory.
What is the reason why the target cluster did not automatically allow writes of the data?
A. SyncIQ Automated failover is not supported for SmartLock directories; however, manual failover
is allowed.
B. Automated failover and manual failover are not allowed on SmartLock directories on the target
cluster.
C. A SyncIQ job was running while the source cluster became unusable, thereby removing all data
on the target directory.
D. SnapshotIQ was not licensed on the target cluster; the snapshot of the directory is not available
for use by SyncIQ.
Answer: A

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NO.6 -- Exhibit -
A large manufacturing company is an existing Isilon customer with a cluster consisting of four NL400
nodes with 4TB drives. The cluster is using N+2:1 protection level and the file system shows that it is
60% utilized. Home directories and file shares comprise 75% of the existing content and the
remainder is inactive deep archive. The company has 1,000 employees using Windows and Mac
clients participating in a single Active Directory (AD) forest.
During a meeting with the CIO and Director of IT you discuss the company's recent acquisition - an
engineering firm that specializes in Computer Aided Design (CAD). The engineering firm has 400
UNIX workstations that produce technical drawings which are currently stored on another vendor's
SAN solution. The all UNIX environment uses NIS for authentication and name resolution. They do
not currently use DNS or LDAP . The engineering company has an old storage system that has been
experiencing problems and the CIO would like you to migrate the data onto the Isilon cluster. The
CIO would like to eliminate all tape and recover the data onto disk.
The CIO is concerned about security of the company's intellectual property, especially with the rapid
adoption of mobile devices and external cloud content sharing services such as DropBox, Egnyte,
and SugarSync. They would like to implement an alternative that provides external file sharing and
mobile device synchronization while maintaining security control over the company's data.
The Director of IT reports that users are storing non-work related content on the Isilon cluster. They
would like to limit the amount of capacity that each user can consume in their home directory and
want to ensure you provide the capability to easily visualize which users are over their
allotment.The company's Windows users currently leverage Windows Shadow Copy to recover files
that have been accidentally deleted. The IT department wants to ensure that Mac and incoming
UNIX clients have the same functionality.
The Director of IT also mentions that users are reporting slow response times when browsing their
home directories and shared folders. They are concerned that Isilon cannot scale to support their
combined requirements.
-- Exhibit -
Based on the meeting with the customer, which Isilon cluster configuration would you recommend?
A. 4 x X400 nodes with 2 x SSD and 34 x 4TB drives 1 x Additional NL400
B. 6 x X400 nodes with 36 x 4TB drives 1 x Backup Accelerator
C. 4 x NL400 nodes with 36 x 4TB drives
D. 9 x S200 nodes with 2 x SSD and 22 x 900GB SAS
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer is making a decision between Isilon and a competitor's offering. They currently
have 100TB of usable capacity and are forecasting 100% growth per year for the next three years,
which will require them to lease additional space in their co-located data center. The CFO finds ROI
and TCO to be important decision criteria.
Which statement best emphasizes the value of Isilon for this customer?
A. Isilon's OneFS data protection policies offer substantially lower overhead than competitive RAID
based NAS solutions.
B. An IDC study found that Isilon requires 95% less down time hours per year compared to other
competitors.
C. The competition cannot offer a scale-out NAS so as capacity is added to the array, performance
may degrade.
D. Isilon's OneFS allows administrators to manage much larger amounts of capacity than
competitive offerings.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What does Isilon OneFS use to re-write data when a disk read fails?
A. Dynamic Sector Repair
B. NVRAM
C. Isilon Data Integrity
D. CRC
Answer: A

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NO.9 If Isilon SmartConnect is being configured in a customer environment, which records are
required for a supported implementation?
A. A SmartConnect Service IP host record and a zone delegation for the SmartConnect zone
delegated to the SSIP
B. An overloaded host record with each SmartConnect zone member's IP address and an SRV record
to provide resolution services
C. A SmartConnect Service IP host record and a corresponding PTR record for each SmartConnect
zone
D. A SOA record for the SmartConnect Service IP and a corresponding CNAME record for each
SmartConnect zone
Answer: A

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NO.10 When an Isilon SyncIQ replication job completes, how many SnapshotIQ policies can be
created on a target cluster directory?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

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NO.11 -- Exhibit -
We have been engaged by a research hospital to help upgrade their Isilon installation.
They currently have 12 previous generation Isilon nodes with 200TB of capacity and run on a 1Gbps
network.
They currently have 6 Illumina Hi-Seq Sequencers and an HPC cluster to process data.
They would like to expand Isilon to 2PB of active data and 1PB of archive data.
They use a third party data and metadata management service (IRODs) to stage data for analysis.
The Isilon cluster is mainly used for analysis work with the HPC cluster.
-- Exhibit -
The customer will add two more Illumina Hi-Seq Sequencers in the next 6 months.
Once these are added, what is the total amount of data from all the sequencers they can expect to
add per month?
A. 9.6 TB
B. 4.8 TB
C. 1.2 TB
D. 14.4 TB
Answer: A

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NO.12 An Isilon customer has an environment supporting a wide range of different workloads. They
want to assign clients to performance tiers based on the resources needed.
What can the customer use to meet this requirement?
A. SmartConnect Zones
B. Load Balancing
C. Client Connection Zone
D. SmartPools Advanced
Answer: A

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NO.13 At a minimum, how many connected and available nodes are required to maintain quorum in
a 25-node cluster?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 13
D. 17
Answer: C

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NO.14 A customer created one month of snapshots; one snapshot every 8 hours for 30 days on an
Isilon cluster using SnapshotIQ. They are now deleting the snapshots randomly and experiencing
overhead to the cluster.
How can the snapshots be removed while avoiding the overhead caused by this process?
A. Delete the snapshots in order
B. Use SmartPools to move the snapshot data to a different tier
C. Snapshots cannot be deleted
D. Remove the directory
Answer: A

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NO.15 An Isilon customer expressed an interest in more effectively managing their storage.
Specifically, they would like to plan for future growth.
Which tool would allow the customer to forecast capacity requirements?
A. InsightIQ
B. Isilon SNMP MIB
C. SyncIQ
D. SmartPools
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: E20-390
Nom d'Examen: EMC (VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers )
Questions et réponses: 333 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the maximum number of Fibre Channel initiator ports, per Linux host, supported by VNX for
Block?
A. 8
B. 4
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: C

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NO.2 The preferred path to your VMware ESX host failed. Which native multi-pathing policy will revert to the
preferred path when it is restored?
A. Fixed only
B. MRU only
C. Round-robin
D. Bath Fixed and MRU
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which LDAP username format is correct for CLI authentication on a VNX system?
A. <username>
B. <username>@FQDN
C. <domain>\<username>
D. <username>.FGDN
Answer: B

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NO.4 If a source LUN is trespassed, what happens to a fractured clone LUN?
A. Neither the clone LUN nor the fracture logs will be acquired by the peer SP
B. The peer SP acquires the fracture logs.
C. The peer SP acquires both the clone LUN and the fracture logs.
D. The peer SP acquires the clone LUN.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the fan-in ratio for MirrorView/A?
A. 1: 1
B. 2: 1
C. 4: 1
D. 8: 1
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement correctly describes a benefit of using a Virtual Data Mover (VDM)?
A. It supports the separation of CIFS servers and their shares
B. It enables the replication of NFS exports
C. It can be configured as a standby for failover.
D. It provides security for users in multi-protocol environments
Answer: A

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NO.7 What are the severity levels available with Unisphere event notifications?
A. Critical and Informational
B. High and Low
C. Critical and Low
D. High and Warning
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which Linux distribution supports both MPFS and pNFS.?
A. CentOS
B. RedHat
C. Fedora
D. Debian
Answer: B

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NO.9 In a VNX array with FAST VP enabled, what is the size of the data slice (chunk) that can be relocated
between tiers?
A. 1 GB
B. 2 GB
C. 5 GB
D. 10 GB
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which utility on a Windows server can be used to view the HBA WWN details?
A. Unisphere Host Agent
B. Unisphere Server Utility
C. HBAnywhere
D. Device Manager
Answer: C

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NO.11 How does the VNX handle LUN ownership changes so that the access path to the LUN is available to
both SPs simultaneously?
A. By the host software being aware of SP ownership
B. By the SPs sharing ownership of the LUNs
C. By using ALUA Failover Mode
D. By the LUN being trespassed.
Answer: C

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NO.12 An administrator has finished configuring the zoning on their MDS-series switch and issues the
following command: zoneset activate name ActiveZS vsan 100
What happens?
A. Zoneset ActiveZS is activated on VSAN 100
B. Zoneset ActiveZS is created on VSAN 100
C. VSAN 100 is created and activated.
D. VSAN 100 is named ActiveZS
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which CLI command displays the IP configuration of each Data Mover?
A. server_ifconfig
B. /sbin/ifconfig
C. server_sysconfig
D. server_devconfig
Answer: A

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NO.14 You are planning to add a new DAE to a VNX storage system. Doing so will exceed the supported total
drive count by four drives. What impact will this have on the operation of the VNX system?
A. The DAE will be recognized but four drive slots will not function.
B. All slots on the DAE will be available for use.
C. Connecting the new DAE will take the bus offline.
D. The DAE can be physically connected, but will not be available.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Where in Unisphere do you assign FAST Cache to LUNs?
A. At the LUN level under a RAID group
B. At the LUN level under a storage pool
C. Under FAST Cache system properties
D. Under the Advanced tab of RAIDGROUP Properties
Answer: A

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NO.16 An administrator exports a newly created file system and finds two directories, called etc and
lost+found. The administrator does not want these directions to appear in the export.
What should the administrator do to address this issue?
A. The administrator should delete the directories
B. Create a subdirectory below the root of the file system and export it
C. Nothing, this is normal and these two directories will show in all exports
D. The administrator should change the attribute of these directories to hidden
Answer: B

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NO.17 An administrator tries to modify the quota settings on a CIFS share from a Windows Server 2003 host,
but the Quota tab does not exist in the network drive properties. What could be a possible cause?
A. Quotas can be managed only with Windows Server 2008
B. The user does not have administrator privileges on this share
C. Exporting is implemented at the file system subdirectory level on VNX OE for File.
D. Windows users cannot modify the quota settings
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which VNX feature is used to reclaim unused storage space?
A. LUN migration
B. LUN shrink
C. Thin provisioning
D. RAID group defragment
Answer: B

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NO.19 What is the length of RSA keys used to encrypt and decrypt network traffic in a VNX environment?
A. 2048 bytes
B. 1024 bits
C. 1024 bytes
D. 2048 bits
Answer: D

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NO.20 A user is creating a dynamic disk on a Windows host. The first disk is fully utilized. Writes continue to
the next disk. Which volume type did they select?
A. Striped
B. Spanned
C. RAID 5
D. Mirrored
Answer: B

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