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2014年3月19日星期三

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J41
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP StorageWorks P2000 Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-S30
Nom d'Examen: HP (Design and Implementation of HP SIM and HP Insight Control)
Questions et réponses: 128 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-Y35
Nom d'Examen: HP (Wireless Networks - ASE 2011 Delta Exam)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-Y31
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP Network Infrastructure Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 144 Q&As

Code d'Examen: HP0-Y30
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP Networking Technologies)
Questions et réponses: 137 Q&As

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NO.1 Which authentication protocol provides mutual authentication for both the supplicant and the
authentication server?
A. Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)
B. Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
C. Microsoft CHAP version 2 (MS-CHAPv2)
D. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)-Message Digest 5 (MD5)
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is one security challenge that is specifically addressed by dynamically refreshing encryption keys?
A. Users forget their passwords and forget how to connect.
B. Hackers are more likely to crack a key when they have many frames encrypted with that key.
C. Asymmetric keys, which are more secure than symmetric keys, must be distributed dynamically.
D. Static encryptions keys can protect data's privacy, but not its integrity.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which RADIUS packet includes the Attribute Value Pairs (AVPs) that are applied to customize a user
connection?
A. Access-Update
B. Access-Request
C. Accounting-Request
D. Access-Accept
Answer: D

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NO.4 An administrator has been tasked with implementing a dynamic port ACL on an HP E5400 zl Series
switch. Which statements are true? (Select two.)
A. It can be implemented as either a standard or extended ACL.
B. It filters switched IP traffic either inbound or outbound on a designated port.
C. It requires the use of 802.1X, Web, or MAC authentication services on the switch.
D. It is used where clients with differing access needs are likely to use the same port.
E. Configuration of the ACL is done on the switch and then read dynamically by a RADIUS server when a
user connects.
F. It can be applied to either a single physical port or to a link aggregation group.
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 You have an HP Networking Switch E5400 zl that has two configured VLANs. VLAN 100 has an IP
address range of 10.1.100.0/24 and is where the servers reside. VLAN 36 has an IP address range of
10.1.36.0/24 and is where the network clients reside. You configure an ACL with the following entries:
permit tcp 10.1.36.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.100.10 255.255.255.255 eq ftp
permit tcp 10.1.36.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.100.10 255.255.255.255 eq https
permit tcp 10.1.36.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.100.10 255.255.255.255 eq ssh
When you apply this ACL statically to ports in VLAN 36, what is the effect on the clients located in VLAN
36?
A. They have no access because the ACL is misconfigured.
B. They cannot access anything in the 10.1.100.0 subnet because IP has not been specified in the ACL.
C. They are allowed only FTP, HTTPS, and SSH access to 10.1.100.10, but no access elsewhere.
D. They are allowed only FTP, HTTPS, and SSH access to 10.1.100.10, but full access to everything else
in the 10.1.100.0 subnet.
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is an advantage of locating intelligent routing at the edge of an enterprise network instead of only
in the core?
A. The edge-oriented strategy supports VRRP and MSTP for default gateway redundancy.
B. The edge-oriented strategy requires fewer VLANs and networks.
C. The edge-oriented strategy simplifies route summarization because only routers must support VLANs
only for directly connected users.
D. The edge-oriented strategy allows traffic to traverse the network after the routing decisions have been
made.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Routed ACLs (RACLs) can be used to filter traffic on an HP E5400 zl switch. Which traffic is
inspected?
A. routed IP traffic arriving on one VLAN and leaving through another VLAN
B. switched IP traffic moving between ports belonging to the same VLAN
C. IP traffic entering a physical port, port list, or static trunk
D. switched IP traffic moving between ports belonging to the same subnet of a multinetted VLAN
Answer: A

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NO.8 You must provide the capability for the Virtual IP address to be pinged if the Backup router assumes
the Master role when the Owner router fails. What is necessary to ensure this operation?
A. E8206(config)# router vrrp virtual-ip-ping
B. E8206(config)# vrrp 10 virtual-ip-ping
C. E8206(config)# router virtual-ip
D. E8206(config)# router ospf ip-ping
Answer: A

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NO.9 HP E5400 zl switches have the ability to mirror traffic from one switch to another. Which action should
you take when implementing remote mirroring?
A. Configure a connection-rate filter.
B. Enable the instrumentation monitor.
C. Enable jumbo frames.
D. Enable a bandwidth limit.
Answer: C

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NO.10 A company ¯ s he l p desk r eques t s access t o t he w eb i n t e rf ace o f va ri ous ne t w o r k i ng dev i ces . The
network administrator decides to implement a secure web interface using SSL. Which step is necessary
to complete this task on an HP E5400 zl switch?
A. import the certificate authority certificate
B. configure RADIUS for user login
C. generate a self-signed certificate
D. enable SSH
Answer: C

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NO.11 You must configure an HP E5406 zl switch to be the Owner of a VRID associated with VLAN 20. What
must be true of the virtual IP address for the VRID?
A. It must use an address on a multi-netted VLAN interface.
B. It must match the router's address on the VLAN 20 interface.
C. It must use a classless address.
D. It must match the address assigned to VLAN 20 on the Backup router.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which mechanism enables two parties to agree on a symmetric key on their own without transmitting it
over the network?
A. Kerberos
B. Key Distribution Center (KDC)
C. Diffie-Hellman exchange
D. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which statement is true about the HP E5400 zl switch Connection-rate Filtering feature?
A. It detects threats with both a signature-based engine and an anomaly-based engine that can detect
zero day attacks.
B. A connection-rate ACL can be used to allow some or all inbound traffic through a port that has been
throttled or blocked.
C. It uses sFlow traffic sampling to determine whether traffic activity represents an intrusion.
D. The connection-rate filter sensitivity is configurable per port, VLAN, or link aggregation group.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which default gateway redundancy protocol is supported on HP E5400 zl switches?
A. XRRP
B. HSRP
C. VRRP
D. FSRP
Answer: C

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NO.15 When the following command is issued at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl switch at factory default settings,
which Spanning Tree version is enabled?
E5406(config)# spanning-tree
A. STP+
B. PVST+
C. MSTP
D. RSTP
Answer: C

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NO.16 An administrator needs to create an ACL to block traffic from 192.168.10.23 to 192.168.10.100, which
are on the same subnet. Which type of ACL can be used to meet this need?
A. a standard ACL applied as Routed ACL (RACL)
B. an extended ACL applied as a Routed ACL (RACL)
C. a standard ACL applied as a VLAN ACL (VACL)
D. an extended ACL applied as a VLAN ACL (VACL)
Answer: D

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NO.17 When a router must determine which route to include in its route table, when does the router use
administrative distance in the decision.?
A. when the router has learned about multiple routes to the same destination from static configurations or
different routing protocols
B. when the router has learned about multiple routes from equal-cost paths to the same destination
C. when the router is configured with static routes to the same destination that specify the same cost but
different next hop router interfaces
D. when the router has learned about multiple routes to the same destination from different sources using
the same routing protocol
Answer: A

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NO.18 How does the Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) improve network availability?
A. by providing redundant links between edge and core layers
B. by providing redundant connections to the Internet
C. by providing backup default gateways for client devices
D. by supporting the configuration of redundant gateways on VRRP-enabled clients
Answer: C

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NO.19 Your CIO wants you to investigate IT defense in depth. What does this mean?
A. You need to purchase a deep-packet inspection Intrusion Prevention System (IPS).
B. You need to upgrade your firewalls to next-generation firewalls.
C. You need to plan a comprehensive strategy that addresses security at many layers.
D. You need to leverage the network infrastructure built-in security features rather than look for
appliance-based solutions.
Answer: C

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NO.20 You must configure four HP E8212 zl switches and six HP E5406 zl switches to support Multiple
Instance Spanning Tree (MSTP) on a network. What must you do to ensure that all the switches join the
same MST region?
A. Configure the switches with identical Uplink Priorities for common switch-to-switch links.
B. Configure Bridge Priorities on each switch so that all MST instances have a different Root Bridge.
C. Configure the switches with identical config-names, config-revisions, and VLAN-to-instance mappings.
D. Configure all switch-to-switch links in each MST instance as tagged members of all VLANs.
Answer: C

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2013年11月27日星期三

L'avènement de la certification HP pratique d'examen HP0-J41 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J41
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP StorageWorks P2000 Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 What is considered an iSCSI initiator in a P2000 G3 MSA implementation?
A. volumes
B. Ethernet switches
C. combo FC/iSCSI controllers
D. server hosts
Answer: D

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NO.2 When you add an expansion module to a P2000 G3 MSA, which HP recommended action should you
take?
A. Configure the storage before you cable the expansion module to the controllers.
B. Update the SMI-S embedded processor firmware before you configure the module.
C. Install the Storage Management Utility on the new module.
D. Set all enclosure management processors to the same firmware level.
Answer: B

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NO.3 When implementing a P2000 G3 solution with a single 8Gb/s FC controller, what are advantages of a
fabric topology over direct connect?
A. supports multiple paths
B. provides storage access from iSCSI adapters
C. supports more storage
D. provides storage access for more hosts
Answer: D

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NO.4 On the P2000 combo iSCSI/FC controller, how do iSCSI and Fibre Channel ports differ? (Select two.)
A. The iSCSI ports require an IP address.
B. FC ports require a Logical Unit Number.
C. The iSCSI ports are 10Gb/s while the FC ports are 8Gb/s.
D. The FC ports are 8Gb/s while the iSCSI ports are 1Gb/s.
E. The controller has more iSCSI ports than FC ports.
Answer: AC

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NO.5 What must you do before you update expansion module firmware on a single-controller P2000 G3
system?
A. Stop I/O to all vdisks.
B. Set the failover policy.
C. Segregate the module from the controller.
D. Update the enclosure management processor (EMP) firmware first.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What are benefits of the P2000 G3 Storage Array compared to the G2 version? (Select two.)
A. 6Gb SAS architecture
B. 512 snapshot functionality as standard
C. drive spin-down capability
D. scalability to 149 LFF drives
E. scalability to 96 SFF
Answer: BC

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NO.7 Which entity must be created for Remote Snap replication in a P2000 G3 environment?
A. data replication group
B. mirror set
C. replication set
D. snap group
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is the correct definition of the P2000 G3 Remote Snap?
A. a synchronous, controller-based replication process based on Volume Shadow Services
B. an asynchronous, software-based replication process based on Volume Shadow Services
C. a synchronous, controller-based replication process based on snapshot technology
D. an asynchronous, controller-based replication process based on snapshot technology
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is a benefit of the P2000 G3 FC array?
A. 8GB cache per controller
B. built-in Remote Snap capability allowing replication over FC
C. support for 128 snapshots included in base license
D. choice of 8Gb/s FC or combo FC/iSCSI controllers
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which type of volume replication can you define in Replication Setup Wizard in a P2000 G3
environment?
A. volume replication on a host agent basis
B. volume replication on the local system or to a remote system
C. volume replication on the local system but not to a remote system
D. volume replication to a remote system exclusively
Answer: B

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2013年9月8日星期日

HP0-J41 dernières questions d'examen certification HP et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J41
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP StorageWorks P2000 Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 When you add an expansion module to a P2000 G3 MSA, which HP recommended action should you
take?
A. Configure the storage before you cable the expansion module to the controllers.
B. Update the SMI-S embedded processor firmware before you configure the module.
C. Install the Storage Management Utility on the new module.
D. Set all enclosure management processors to the same firmware level.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is considered an iSCSI initiator in a P2000 G3 MSA implementation?
A. volumes
B. Ethernet switches
C. combo FC/iSCSI controllers
D. server hosts
Answer: D

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NO.3 When implementing a P2000 G3 solution with a single 8Gb/s FC controller, what are advantages of a
fabric topology over direct connect?
A. supports multiple paths
B. provides storage access from iSCSI adapters
C. supports more storage
D. provides storage access for more hosts
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is a benefit of the P2000 G3 FC array?
A. 8GB cache per controller
B. built-in Remote Snap capability allowing replication over FC
C. support for 128 snapshots included in base license
D. choice of 8Gb/s FC or combo FC/iSCSI controllers
Answer: D

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NO.5 On the P2000 combo iSCSI/FC controller, how do iSCSI and Fibre Channel ports differ? (Select two.)
A. The iSCSI ports require an IP address.
B. FC ports require a Logical Unit Number.
C. The iSCSI ports are 10Gb/s while the FC ports are 8Gb/s.
D. The FC ports are 8Gb/s while the iSCSI ports are 1Gb/s.
E. The controller has more iSCSI ports than FC ports.
Answer: AC

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NO.6 What are benefits of the P2000 G3 Storage Array compared to the G2 version? (Select two.)
A. 6Gb SAS architecture
B. 512 snapshot functionality as standard
C. drive spin-down capability
D. scalability to 149 LFF drives
E. scalability to 96 SFF
Answer: BC

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NO.7 Which entity must be created for Remote Snap replication in a P2000 G3 environment?
A. data replication group
B. mirror set
C. replication set
D. snap group
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which type of volume replication can you define in Replication Setup Wizard in a P2000 G3
environment?
A. volume replication on a host agent basis
B. volume replication on the local system or to a remote system
C. volume replication on the local system but not to a remote system
D. volume replication to a remote system exclusively
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the correct definition of the P2000 G3 Remote Snap?
A. a synchronous, controller-based replication process based on Volume Shadow Services
B. an asynchronous, software-based replication process based on Volume Shadow Services
C. a synchronous, controller-based replication process based on snapshot technology
D. an asynchronous, controller-based replication process based on snapshot technology
Answer: D

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NO.10 What must you do before you update expansion module firmware on a single-controller P2000 G3
system?
A. Stop I/O to all vdisks.
B. Set the failover policy.
C. Segregate the module from the controller.
D. Update the enclosure management processor (EMP) firmware first.
Answer: A

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