2014年8月16日星期六

Pass4Test offre une formation sur IBM C2180-400 C2020-180 matériaux examen

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Code d'Examen: C2180-400
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Operational Decision Management V8.0 Application Development)
Questions et réponses: 52 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C2020-180
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Cognos 8 BI Professional )
Questions et réponses: 66 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is a significant cause of failure when using the technology-
focused approach to
BI Application development?
A.Users often have difficulty understanding new technology.
B.New technology often contains internal flaws and errors that affect the delivered solution.
C.The solution is focused on a single subject area.
D.Developers often focus on just the data.
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which of the following describes the major steps in the deployment process for a
Cognos 8 BI
application and their proper order?
A.Plan, verify, and customize
B.Move, customize, and verify
C.Plan, move, and secure
D.Plan, move, and verify
Answer:D

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NO.3 Which of the following is correct regarding the processing of a PageDown high affinity
request?
A.The request is routed to the same process that served up the originating low affinity
request if the
process is available and if there is an available high affinity connection.
B.The request is given priority and is always processed by the same process that served up
the
originating low affinity request.
C.The request is load-balanced and is sent to any available dispatcher in the system.
D.The request is automatically queued and is processed by the first available low affinity
connection in the
system.
Answer:A

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NO.4 The V-Model testing process specifies that developers should both verify and validate
each test. Which
of the following describes how developers would validate their tests in the design step of the
V-model?
A.Check the design by conducting an assembly test.
B.Check the design by conducting a component test.
C.Check the design against the business requirements.
D.Check the design against the developed components.
Answer:C

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NO.5 Which of the following is correct regarding report execution requests?
A.A low affinity request is directed to the same process that served up the originating low
affinity request if
the process is available and there is an available high affinity connection.
B.A low affinity request can be processed using a high affinity connection when a low affinity
connection is
not available.
C.An absolute affinity request does not require a connection because it has priority.
D.A high affinity request can be processed using a low affinity connection if there are no high
affinity
connections available.
Answer:D

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Dernières IBM A4120-784 A2010-591 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: A4120-784
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: IBM PureFlex Technical Expert V1)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

Code d'Examen: A2010-591
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assess: Fundamentals of Applying Tivoli Service Delivery and Process Automation Solutions V3)
Questions et réponses: 86 Q&As

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NO.1 The client has three independent redundant SAN fabrics: One for development, one for
validation and one for production. The client will use a chassis with x240 nodes to connect these
SAN fabrics. What is the best solution for the client?
A. Use two CN4054 adapters and two EN4093 switches, each with two FoD enhancements
B. Use two CN4058 adapters and two CN4093 switches, each with two FoD enhancements
C. Use two CN4058 adapters and four EN4093 switches, each with one FoD enhancement
D. Use one CN4054 adapter, LOM, and four CN4093 switches with FoD enhancements throughout
Answer: D

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NO.2 The client seeks to reduce cost and complexity in a highly virtualized x86 environment. They
want the network policies to migrate automatically along with mobile virtual machines to ensure
that security, performance and access remains intact as virtual machines move from server to server.
VMware is their virtualization standard. Which option will provide a complete solution?
A. Switches capable to support 802.1 QBG
B. Cisco Nexus 1000V on IBM VMready Switches
C. IBM Switch-resident IBM VMready capability
D. IBM Software Defined Networking (SDN) for Virtual
Answer: D

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NO.3 A client has a need for a Linux based solution that requires a large amount of memory. The
application runs on either x86 or Power nodes. Which of the following nodes would provide the
maximum memory configuration?
A. p460
B. x440
C. p24L
D. x240
Answer: B

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NO.4 A client has a PureFlex system and needs to upgrade their Flex System V7000 Storage
Node. Which interface would be used to accomplish this?
A. FSM
B. BIOS upgrade
C. Chassis Manager
D. Flex Node Interface GUI
Answer: A

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NO.5 A large enterprise client wants to perform a benchmark on a PureFlex System to compare the
performance against a competitive solution. What is the best way for the client to proceed?
A. Try and Buy a PureFlex System and let the client perform the benchmark
B. Lease a PureFlex System from a Business Partner and have the Partner perform the benchmark
C. Invite the client to the local IBM Client Center (ICC) and have the ICC perform the benchmark
D. Visit an IBM Products and Solutions Support Center (PSSC) and have the PSSC perform the
benchmark
Answer: D

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NO.6 For comparing the x86 IBM Flex System offering with the Cisco UCS offering, a client wants to
know how much energy the IBM Flex System will be consuming. The energy consumption based on
label ratings is not sufficient. What tool would the technical expert use to determine this?
A. The IBM Power Configurator
B. The IBM System Planning Tool
C. The IBM Systems Workload Estimator
D. The IBM Systems Energy Estimator Tool
Answer: A

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NO.7 A client wants a PureFlex Express configuration with an additional EN4093R 10Gb Scalable
Switch module for redundancy. The Power nodes in the configuration have four-port 10Gb NICs and
the client applications planned for the Power nodes will require the use of all four of those ports.
What must the technical expert include in the configuration to meet this requirement?
A. An additional pair of EN4093R 10Gb Scalable Switch modules
B. IBM Flex System CN4054 Virtual Fabric Adapter Upgrade for each CN4054 adapter
C. IBM Flex System Fabric EN4093 10Gb Scalable Switch (Upgrade 1) for each switch
D. IBM Flex System Fabric EN4093 10Gb Scalable Switch (Upgrade 2) for each switch
Answer: C

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NO.8 On a PureFlex system, how can an FSM be recovered if the management software is
inoperable because of misconfiguration or corruption, but the management node hardware is
operational and the hard drives have not failed?
A. Call smcli restore from the FSM CLI to restore the FSM
B. Call IBM Support and request a replacement of the FSM ITE
C. Connect to the Internet, download a new FSM image and install it over the IMM connection to
the FSM
D. Boot while pressing F12 and select the recovery partition as the boot device, then run a full
system recovery
Answer: D

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Dernières IBM C4040-108 C2180-178 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: C4040-108
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Enterprise Technical Support for AIX and Linux -v2)
Questions et réponses: 130 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C2180-178
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.2, BPM Development)
Questions et réponses: 49 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following commands will enable the SEA accounting?
A. chacct -dev ent14 -attr enable
B. optimizenet -set accounting=enabled
C. chsea -dev ent14 -attr accounting=enable
D. chdev -dev ent14 -attr accounting=enabled
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following commands traces a processes system calls, received signals, and
machine faults?
A. prof
B. topas
C. truss
D. mpstat
Answer: C

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NO.3 An administrator attempts to migrate a running LPAR using the 'migrlpar' command. :
What task will help the administrator determine the cause of the errors?
A. Validate the configured attributes on the Properties tab of the LPAR profile.
B. Validate that the VIO servers have the Mover Service Partition (MSP) attribute set.
C. Validate that the required CPU entitlements are available on the destination server.
D. Validate that the Logical Memory Block (LMB) size is consistent between both source and
destination.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A system administrator must provide network access to a single VLAN for multiple partitions
on a Power 795 server. The Power 795 server has a pair VIO Server (VIOS) partitions, with a Shared
Ethernet Adapter (SEA) in each one. Each SEA will use a single-port Ethernet adapter as a backing
device. Both SEAs must support network traffic so both adapters are used simultaneously. Network
service must be resilient. All client partitions must be able to maintain network access to this VLAN
through either VIOS partition if the other VIOS partition fails or is taken out of service. Which of the
following configurations would satisfy this goal?
A. The SEAs are both connected to the same virtual switch. Both SEAs are configured for SEA failover.
The client LPARs are configured with one virtual Ethernet adapter
B. The SEAs are each connected to separate virtual switches. Both SEAs are configured for SEA
failover. The client LPARs are configured with one virtual Ethernet adapter.
C. The SEAs are both connected to the same virtual switch. Neither SEA is configured for SEA failover.
The client LPARs are configured with NIB on two virtual Ethernet adapters.
D. The SEAs are each connected to separate virtual switches. Neither SEA is configured for SEA
failover. The client LPARs are configured with NIB on two virtual Ethernet adapters.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which power reduction technology requires a software component in order to be activated?
A. Power capping
B. Processor folding
C. Static power saving
D. Processor core nap mode
Answer: A

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NO.6 A company which sells books and DVDs runs their business on AIX Enterprise Edition on a
Power
795. They have LPARs running back-office applications and other LPARs supporting their Internet
based retail operations. They are considering a policy of switching between TurboCore mode and
MaxCore mode, depending on workload. Which of the following considerations will have the most
impact on the customer's business?
A. The managed system will need to be restarted to change modes.
B. There will be fewer cores available when using TurboCore mode.
C. There will be less L3 cache available per core when using MaxCore mode.
D. The applications running on the affected LPARs must support MaxCore and TurboCore modes.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer backs up a database using tools provided by the vendor. The backup files are
written to a filesystem that was initially created for use by the database, but the backup takes an
unexpectedly long time. Which of the following methods will decrease the time required for
backups?
A. Use the vmo command to increase WriteBehind.
B. Switch on Concurrent I/O for target filesystems.
C. Switch off Concurrent I/O for target filesystems.
D. Use the backup tools provided with the operating system.
Answer: C

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NO.8 A customer has an existing deployment of IBM i LPARs running on POWER6 hardware. The
customer is planning to add new AIX and IBM i LPARs on the same hardware. To avoid purchasing
additional adapters, there is a requirement for the new LPARs to be completely virtualized. What
virtualization options exist for hosting IBM i and AIX LPARs?
A. Virtualization Engine (VE)
B. N_Port ID Virtualization (NPIV)
C. Advanced Power Virtualization (APV)
D. Network Server Description (NWSD) and VIO Server
Answer: D

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Dernières IBM C2150-057 C2180-270 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: C2150-057
Nom d'Examen: IBM (AppScan Source Edition)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C2180-270
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Business Process Manager Advanced V7.5, Integration Development )
Questions et réponses: 56 Q&As

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NO.1 An integration developer has configured a BPEL business process for a customer, as shown below:
What behavior will the integration developer observe when executing the flow?
A. It is possible for both Snippet2 and Snippet3 to execute.
B. The execution order of the links entering Snippet2 and Snippet3 has no impact on the process flow.
C. The gateway leading into Snippet5 will cause an error because the navigation behavior is not set
correctly.
D. The gateway leading into Snippet4 will cause an error because the link exiting Snippet2 has no
condition.
Answer: C

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NO.2 An integration developer has configured a BPEL business process for a customer, as shown below:
Assume that max is greater than min. What should the integration developer take into account when
implementing this for each loop?
A. There must be an array associated with the for each loop.
B. It is possible to exit the loop before Index is equal to max.
C. The values of min and max cannot be changed once the for each activity begins.
D. If the scope inside of the for each activity is set to isolated, then the activities will run sequentially.
Answer: D

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NO.3 An integration developer is testing the process shown in the following exhibits.
If the integration developer starts an instance of the ProcessA process with an input of "HELLO", which of
the following strings will the LogSnippet snippet write to System.out?
A. output1=ORIGINAL :: aString=ORIGINAL
B. output1=ORIGINAL :: aString=MODIFIED
C. output1=MODIFIED :: aString=ORIGINAL
D. output1=MODIFIED :: aString=MODIFIED
Answer: C

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NO.4 An integration developer has configured a business state machine, as shown below:
What behavior will the integration developer observe when executing the flow?
A. If Condition3 is false, then Exit1 will execute after Timeout2 expires.
B. If Condition1 and Condition2 are both true, then a runtime exception will be thrown.
C. If Condition1 is false, then Timeout1 will not be evaluated.
D. If Condition1 and Condition2 are both false, then operation2 will be called by the business state
machine.
Answer: A

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NO.5 An integration developer has developed the following business process, as shown in the exhibit: The
invoke activities Invoke1 and Invoke2 are synchronous invocations and execute in a few seconds. A
compensation handler needs to be defined for Snippet2 following a business action from the customer.
The customer considers performance to be a key requirement. How would the integration developer
implement these requirements? The business process needs to be a:
A. long-running process because of the required fault handler.
B. long-running process because of the required compensation handler.
C. microflow because no human tasks are required.
D. microflow for best performance as every invoke activity uses synchronous invocation and executes
quickly.
Answer: B

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NO.6 An integration developer needs to rewrite business rule logic written in Java using a business rule
component. The integration developer has implemented the selector shown in the exhibits below.
What behavior will the integration developer observe with the configured selector?
A. The module will fail to compile because there is no wiring between the selector and the destination
components.
B. The module will fail to compile because the destination of the selector can only be rule logic or decision
table.
C. The runtime exception will be thrown because there is no default component configured.
D. The runtime exception will be thrown if the date when the selector is invoked does not fall in any of the
specified date ranges.
Answer: D

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NO.7 An integration developer has configured a BPEL business process for a customer, as shown below:
What should the integration developer consider when implementing this flow?
A. An Otherwise element must be added to the Choice activity.
B. A Timeout element must be added to the ReceiveChoice activity.
C. It is possible for Snippet1 and Snippet2 to run concurrently in the same instance of the process.
D. If Snippet1 is invoked in an instance of the process, that instance will not receive messages sent to the
Service2 interface.
Answer: D

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NO.8 An integration developer needs to check which Common Event Infrastructure (CEI) events have been
generated for a business process and review the information contained inside each event. Where will the
integration developer find this information?
A. In the Common Base Event browser application.
B. In the monitoring widgets in Business Space.
C. In the administrative console -> Service Integration -> Common Event Infrastructure -> Event Service
D. In the Business Process Choreographer Explorer -> Views tab -> Process Instances -> Events
generated
Answer: A

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Les meilleures IBM C2010-565 A2090-545 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: C2010-565
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.9 Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 122 Q&As

Code d'Examen: A2090-545
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: DB2 9.7 SQL Procedure Developer)
Questions et réponses: 109 Q&As

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NO.1 A developer wants to code the following statements in an SQL procedure:
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 2, 4, 3, 1
C. 3, 4, 2, 1
D. 4, 3, 2, 1
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which three optional clauses can be used when creating an external function? (Choose three.)
A. SCRATCHPAD
B. NOTEPAD
C. LANGUAGE
D. EXTERNAL NAME
E. DATABASEINFO
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 Which procedure demonstrates the correct use of dynamic SQL?
A. CREATE PROCEDURE update_count1 (INnew_count INTEGER, IN item_code INTEGER) BEGIN
DECLARE v_dynSQL VARCHAR(200); SET v_dynSQL = 'UPDATE stock SET quantity_on_hand=?
WHERE item_number=?'; PREPARE v_stmt1 FROM v_dynSQL; EXECUTE v_stmt1 USING new_count,
item_code; END
B. CREATE PROCEDURE update_count2 (INtab_name VARCHAR(128), IN new_count INTEGER, IN
item_code INTEGER) BEGIN DECLARE v_dynSQL VARCHAR(200); SET v_dynSQL = 'UPDATE ? SET
quantity_on_hand=? WHERE item_number=?'; PREPARE v_stmt1 FROM v_dynSQL; EXECUTE
v_stmt1 USING tab_name, new_count, item_code; END
C. CREATE PROCEDURE update_count4 (INtab_name VARCHAR(128), IN col_name1
VARCHAR(128), IN col_name2 VARCHAR(128), IN new_countINTEGER, IN item_code INTEGER)
BEGIN
DECLARE v_dynSQL VARCHAR(200); SET v_dynSQL = 'UPDATE ? SET ?=? WHERE ?=?'; PREPARE
v_stmt1 FROM v_dynSQL; EXECUTE v_stmt1 USING tab_name, col_name1, new_count, col_name2,
item_code; END
D. CREATE PROCEDURE update_count5 (INnew_count INTEGER, IN item_code INTEGER) BEGIN
DECLARE v_dynSQL VARCHAR(200); DECLARE v_col_name VARCHAR(128); SET v_col_name =
'item_number'; SET v_dynSQL = 'UPDATE stock SET quantity_on_hand=? WHERE ?=?'; PREPARE
v_stmt1 FROM v_dynSQL; EXECUTE v_stmt1 USING new_count, v_col_name, item_code; END
Answer: A

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NO.4 The CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE statement is similar semantically to which of the following
combined statements?
A. DROP and CREATE PROCEDURE
B. ALTER and CREATE PROCEDURE
C. UPDATE and CREATE PROCEDURE
D. DROP and ALTER PROCEDURE
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which CREATE PROCEDURE statement option should be used if you plan on issuing a DECLARE
GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE statement from within the SQL procedure body?
A. CONTAINS SQL
B. READS SQL DATA
C. MODIFIES SQL DATA
D. LANGUAGE SQL
Answer: C

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NO.6 Given the following SQL:
Which of the following statements is true?
A. The procedure declaration requires the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS 1 clause in order to return a result
set.
B. The cursor declaration requires WITH RETURN TO CLIENT clause in order to return a result set.
C. The cursor declaration requires WITH RETURN TO CALLER clause in order to return a result set.
D. The cursor declaration requires WITH RETURN clause in order to return a result set.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, how many rows will be returned by the SQL query shown below? SELECT *
FROM TABLE(getnumemployee(21?) AS dSELECT * FROM TABLE(getnumemployee(?21?) AS d
A.0
B.1
C.7
D.10
Answer: C

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NO.8 A developer needs to create a user-defined function that will return a list of employees who work in a
particular department. Which statement will successfully create a function that meets this objective?
A. CREATE FUNCTIONdept_employees (deptno CHAR(3)) RETURNS TABLE LANGUAGE SQL
READS SQL DATA RETURN SELECT empno, lastname AS l_name, firstnme AS f_name FROM
employee WHERE employee.workdept = dept_employees.deptno
B. CREATE FUNCTIONdept_employees (deptno CHAR(3)) RETURNS TABLE DYNAMIC RESULT
SETS 1 LANGUAGE SQL READS SQL DATA DECLARE emp_info CURSOR WITH RETURN FOR
SELECT empno, lastname AS l_name, firstnme AS f_name FROM employee WHERE
employee.workdept = dept_employees.deptno OPEN emp_info; RETURN
C. CREATE FUNCTIONdept_employees (deptno CHAR(3)) RETURNS TABLE (empno CHAR(6),
l_nameVARCHAR(15), f_nameVARCHAR(12)) LANGUAGE SQL READS SQL DATA RETURN SELECT
empno, lastname AS l_name, firstnme AS f_name FROM employee WHERE employee.workdept =
dept_employees.deptno
D. CREATE FUNCTIONdept_employees (deptno CHAR(3)) RETURNS TABLE (empno CHAR(6),
l_nameVARCHAR(15), f_nameVARCHAR(12)) DYNAMIC RESULT SETS 1 LANGUAGE SQL READS
SQL DATA DECLARE emp_info CURSOR WITH RETURN FOR
SELECT empno, lastname AS l_name, firstnme AS f_name FROM employee WHERE
employee.workdept = dept_employees.deptno OPEN emp_info; RETURN
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: C2040-913
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Developing Websites with IBM Lotus Web Content Mgmt 7.0)
Questions et réponses: 85 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C2010-503
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.3 Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 128 Q&As

Code d'Examen: A2180-175
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: IBM WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.2, Development (Entry))
Questions et réponses: 66 Q&As

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NO.1 What does the Warehouse Proxy agent do?
A. It provides dashboard visualization and reporting services for the Tivoli Data Warehouse.
B. It receives data collected by monitoring agents and moves itto the Tivoli Data Warehouse
database.
C. It analyzes and enriches the data that is collected by its monitoring agents and provides reports
about the performance and capacityof systems.
D. It provides the abilityto customize the length of time to save data and how often to aggregate
granular data in the Tivoli Data Warehouse database.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is monitored by the Summarization and Pruning agent (SPA)?
A. The run time and completion of the SPA
B. The connection to the Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server
C. The size of the tables being summarized and pruned
D. Availability of space on the disk where the Tivoli Data Warehouse is located
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is a potential EIF destination?
A. Tivoli Event Reporter
B. Tivoli Enterprise Portal
C. Tivoli Netcool EIF Probe
D. IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNibus
Answer: D

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NO.4 If Java is not initially installed, which version is installed when the Tivoli Enterprise Portal client
is run?
A. IBMJava6
B. IBMJava7
C. Oracle Java 6
D. Oracle Java 7
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which statement is correct regarding the Hub Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server (TEMS) in an
IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.3 environment?
A. There can only be one active Hub TEMS in each environment.
B. There can be more than one active Hub TEMS in each environment.
C. The number of needed Hub TEMS is determined by an updated file during installation.
D. The number of needed Hub TEMS is dependent on the number of active links to agents.
Answer: A

IBM   certification C2010-503   C2010-503

NO.6 Jar for Service Management accelerates deployment, integration, and workflow automation
across which tools?
A. Only IBM tools
B. Only third-party tools
C. Only IBM and partnertools
D. IBM, partner, and third-partytools
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which type of event integration can be performed with IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNI bus?
A. Bi-directional using the Event Console Agent
B. Bi-directional using the Event Integration Facility
C. Uni-directional using the Event Integration Facility
D. Uni-directional using the IBM Tivoli Monitoring Situation Update Forwarder
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which statement is true regarding Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server V6.3 (TEPS)?
A. Oracle is now a supported database for TEPS.
B. Authorization policy enforcement is enabled by default.
C. IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.3 strongly recommends the upgrade to Java 6.
D. The dashboard data provider is optionally enabled during the TEPS configuration.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: A2180-608
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: IBM WebSphere Process Server V7.0, Deployment)
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

Code d'Examen: A4040-225
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: Power Systems with POWER7 and AIX & Linux Technical Sales Skills - v2)
Questions et réponses: 82 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C2040-406
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition System Administration A)
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

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NO.1 When a user tries to access a database on a server that is unavailable, IBM Domino will
attempt to redirect the user to a replica of the database on another server in the cluster. Which
Domino server task determines the availability on each cluster server?
A. Server Balancer
B. Cluster Manager
C. Failover Manager
D. Workload Balancer
Answer: B

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NO.2 Katie has set up a Resource Reservations database and would like to allow certain users to
create resource documents. How should she do this?
A. No further action is required. All users can create resources by default.
B. List the users' names in the access control list (ACL) of the Resource Reservations database.
C. List the users' names in the ACL of the Resource Reservations database and assign them the
[ResourceAdmin] role.
D. List the users' names in the ACL of the Resource Reservations database and assign them the
[CreateResource] role.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Craig administers two IBM Domino servers: DomServerA and DomServerB. He's recently had
to change the hostname of DomServerB, and since then DomServerA is no longer able to connect to
it. What is a likely explanation for this?
A. The hostname cache on DomServerA needs to be flushed.
B. DomServerA needs to be restarted in order to see DomServerB's new hostname.
C. DomServerA needs the hostname of DomServerB changed in its Connection document.
D. DomServerB needs the hostname of DomServerA changed in its Connection document.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Once a Directory Assistance database is created and replicated to a server, what must be done
before the database can be utilized by the server?
A. The LDAP task must be restarted.
B. The Administration Process must be invoked.
C. The Extended Directory Catalog configuration document must be updated.
D. The Server document must be updated and the IBM Domino server must be restarted.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Kaitlin has had DAOS running for a few months on her server, but now wishes to change where
the files are stored. How can she do this?
A. This is not possible. Once the DAOS service is configured the location of the repository cannot be
moved.
B. Update the "DAOS base path" field in the Server document to the new location. Restart the server.
The files will automatically be copied to the new location.
C. Update the "DAOS base path" field in the Server document to the new location. Stop the server.
Copy the files from the old directory to the new location at the operating-system level. Restart the
server.
D. Stop the server. Create a linked folder in the current DAOS repository location pointing at the new
destination. Copy the files from the old directory to the new location at the operating-system level.
Restart the server.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement is true for the IBM Notes 9.0 Basic client?
A. The Notes 9.0 Basic client is available for Windows only.
B. The Notes 9.0 Basic client is available for Windows and Mac only.
C. The Notes 9.0 Basic client is available for Windows and Linux only.
D. The Notes 9.0 Basic client is available for Windows, Mac, and Linux.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What type of Web Site rule can be used to provide user-friendly aliases for complex URLs?
A. Rewrite
B. Directory
C. Redirection
D. Substitution
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which hidden view in the Domain Catalog can an administrator use to find which databases
are included in the domain index?
A. $MultiDbIndex
B. $DbCategories
C. $DocumentContent
D. $DomainRepository
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: P2070-072
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Content Collector Technical Mastery Test v1)
Questions et réponses: 41 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C2030-280
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Cloud Computing Infrastructure Architect V1)
Questions et réponses: 102 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C2180-274
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere DataPower SOA Appliances Firmware V5.0 Solution Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

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NO.1 Which storage infrastructure function provides benefit for public cloud computing?
A. metadata
B. multipath I/O
C. clustered trivial database
D. real time storage management
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which component is necessary to view monitoring reports for IBM Service Delivery
Manager?
A. Tivoli Enterprise Portal
B. Tivoli Service Request Manager
C. Tivoli Service Automation Manager
D. WebSphere Administrative Console
Answer: A

IBM   C2030-280   C2030-280 examen   C2030-280   C2030-280

NO.3 A cloud service vendor provides business services such as human resources and
payroll processing.
They use Web interfaces on a shared infrastructure providing multi-tenant services without
the need to
manage or control the underlying resources. What type of cloud service is this company
providing?
A. Platform as a Service
B. Software as a Service
C. Infrastructure as a Service
D. Business Process as a Service
Answer: D

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NO.4 Cloud architectures designed for service delivery and availability of services are
extremely important.
How is software failure within a cloud infrastructure environment handled? (Choose two.)
A. replace the failed node
B. restart the software image
C. use elastic IP addresses for consistent and re-mappable routes
D. allow the state of the system to re-sync by reloading messages from queues
E. design services with proper real time disaster recovery and stateful user context
Answer: D,E

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NO.5 An enterprise wants to take advantage of cloud computing but retain control over the
construction and
delivery of all cloud-based services. Which cloud deployment model will meet their needs?
A. hybrid cloud
B. private cloud
C. community cloud
D. public shared cloud
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which IBM product implements metering capabilities?
A. IBM Tivoli Monitoring
B. IBM Tivoli Common Reporting
C. IBM Tivoli System Automation
D. IBM Tivoli Usage and Accounting Manager
Answer: D

IBM examen   C2030-280 examen   C2030-280 examen

NO.7 What are two considerations before moving data to a public cloud? (Choose two.)
A. A company must restructure all data to accommodate a public cloud data model.
B. A company should analyze all legal and regulatory issues that pertain to the data.
C. A company can safely assume that cloud services will replicate and backup all of their
data.
D. A company should encrypt all data so that they do not have to analyze legal and
regulatory issues.
E. A company should analyze data structure to see if they can take advantage of public cloud
data
models.
Answer: B,E

IBM   C2030-280   C2030-280 examen

NO.8 Which area of the current IT enterprise availability and redundancy components must
be addressed in
order to move to a cloud operational model?
A. server capacity to service capacity
B. workload availability to service availability
C. application availability to workload availability
D. server mean time between failures (MTBF) to service MTBF
Answer: C

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2014年8月14日星期四

SOA Certified Professional S90-03A S90-18A C90-03A examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: S90-03A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Design & Architecture)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

Code d'Examen: S90-18A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Fundamental SOA Security)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C90-03A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Cloud Technology Lab)
Questions et réponses: 21 Q&As

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NO.1 The manager of an IT department decides to split up an existing enterprise service inventory into two
domain service inventories. The public key used previously in the enterprise service inventory can
continue to be used in one of the domain service inventories.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.2 A task service needs to access three entity services as part of a service composition. The task service
needs to authenticate itself every time it accesses one of the three entity services. Because the task
service must authenticate itself three times to complete its task, the current service composition design is
considered inefficient. How can it be improved while continuing to fulfill the authentication requirements?
A. Increase the network bandwidth between the task service and the entity services.
B. Use a single sign-on mechanism.
C. Remove the authentication requirements within the service composition, thereby reducing the
message size and making communication faster.
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.3 The requirement to defer security related state data at runtime relates directly to the application of which
service-orientation principle?
A. Service Loose Coupling
B. Service Autonomy
C. Service Abstraction
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.4 The application of the Data Origin Authentication pattern only provides message integrity.?
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.5 The owner of a service inventory reports that the public key related to a certain private key has been
lost. There is a concern that this was the result of a security breach. A security specialist recommends
contacting the certificate authority in order to add the corresponding certificate to the certificate authority's
Certificate Revocation List (CRL). However, the certificate authority responds by indicating that this is not
necessary. Which of the following answers explains this response?
A. The certificate authority needs to issue a new public key instead.
B. The certificate authority requires that the existing public key needs to be changed within the existing
certificate.
C. Public keys cannot get lost because they are alreadypublicallyavailable.
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.6 The SAML and WS-Security industry standards can be applied to the same service composition
architecture.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.7 The use of XML-Encryption supports the application of the Service Abstraction principle because the
actual message remains hidden from the attacker.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following is not a hashing algorithm?
A. MD5
B. X.509
C. SHA-1
D. SHA-256
Answer: B

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Dernières SOA Certified Professional C90-05A S90-19A examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: C90-05A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Advance Cloud Architecture - C90.05)
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

Code d'Examen: S90-19A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Advanced SOA Security)
Questions et réponses: 83 Q&As

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NO.1 Applying the Dynamic Failure Detection and Recovery pattern establishes a
_____________that can monitor and respond to runtime failure conditions.
A. Watchdog system
B. Capacityplanner system
C. Failover system C D.Intelligent automation engine
Answer: A

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NO.2 The application of the Elastic Resource Capacity pattern results in a system that can
dynamically allocate and reclaim __________________ and __________________ for virtual
servers, in response to fluctuating processing requirements.
A. RAM memory, CPUs
B. storage capacity, LUN5
C. virtual switches, uplinks
D. load balanced IT resources, clustered IT resources
Answer: A

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NO.3 The system established by applying the Elastic Network Capacity pattern ensures that
individual cloud consumer __________________ are isolated, and that each cloud consumer is
using its own set of __________________.
A. virtual servers, physical uplinks
B. cloud storage devices, virtual switches
C. traffic workflows, network ports
D. hypervisors, network switches
Answer: C

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NO.4 The system that results from the application of the Elastic Disk Provisioning pattern uses the
thin-provisioning program to create virtual server disks.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following statements about the system that is established by the application of
the Redundant Physical Connection for Virtual Servers pattern are true? (Choose Three)
A. The system can establish multiple redundant uplink connections.
B. The system can prevent cloud consumers from losing connectivity to virtual servers.
C. The system regulates the bandwidth that is allocated to individual uplink connections.
D. The system places redundant uplink connections in standby mode.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.6 A load balancing system is established after the Load Balanced Virtual Switches pattern is
applied. This system uses _____________to balance workloads across multiple uplinks
simultaneously, to prevent network cards from overloading.
A. Load Balanced Virtual Switches, link aggregation
B. Load Balanced Virtual Server Instances, secondary uplinks
C. Workload Distribution, virtual switch replication
D. Service Load Balancing, cloud service replication
Answer: A

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NO.7 The application of the _____________pattern results in a dynamic vertical scaling system
that uses the _____________program to move LUNs to cloud storage devices of higher capacity.
A. Cross-Storage Device Vertical Tiering, LUN migration
B. Intra-Storage Device Vertical Tiering, storage replication
C. Shared Resources, rapid provisioning
D. Noneoftheabove.
Answer: A

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NO.8 In a cloud architecture resulting from the application of the Cloud Bursting compound pattern,
the _________________ mechanism is used to maintain synchronizing between a cloud consumer's
on-premise and cloud-based IT resources.
A. hypervisor
B. resource pooling
C. automated scaling listener
D. resource replication
Answer: D

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SOA Certified Professional meilleur examen C90-02A S90-05A, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: C90-02A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Cloud Technology Concepts)
Questions et réponses: 87 Q&As

Code d'Examen: S90-05A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Technology Lab)
Questions et réponses: 40 Q&As

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NO.1 A partner organization has given you samples of XML documents retrieved from their product
information database. The three samples they have sent you are: Because they are an important partner,
you have agreed to write a service to accept XML documents in their format. However, they did not send
you a schema, so you are tasked with defining a schema that will correctly validate their documents.
Which of the following XML schemas will successfully validate each of the above XML document
fragments.?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B

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NO.2 Your company has developed a service that allows your customers to check the status of an order. The
schema for the service is shown here:
A new customer plans to use your service, but they want to test it first. They have asked for two sample
XML documents that show typical input and output message content. Which of the following pairs of XML
elements will validate with the schema shown above?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are a consultant helping a large bank implement an on-line banking service for its customers. The
first operation you need to build is one that allows a customer to initiate a transfer of funds. You are
presented with the following sample XML document that represents the funds transfer information that
this operation needs to be able to receive:
<transfer>
< fromAccount>12345 </fromAccount>
< toAccount>44432 </toAccount>
<amount>2000</amount>
</transfer>
You are also provided with the following sample that shows that the response message sent by the
service needs to return a single element with text content:
<transferStatus>SUCCESS</transferStatus>
Which of the following XML schemas will validate the two samples shown above?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your developer is asked to build a Timesheet service that is able to receive timesheet submissions for
an internal payroll system. Service consumers need to be able to send this service request message
based on a root "employeeHours" element within the SOAP message body. The "employeeHourse"
element will contain "ernpID" and "hours" child elements. Furthermore, the service needs to return a
message based on a "response" element that contains "empID" and "status" child elements.
Your developer comes to you with the following WSDL definition: The only revision you suggest is that the
value of the "style" attribute of the "soap: binding" element be changed to "document" instead of "rpc".
Why?
A. With a value of "rpc", the root element within the SOAP message body will have the name of the
operation, and therefore cannot be named "employeeHours" as indicated by the requirements.
B. With a value of "rpc", the root element within the SOAP message body is unable to be part of an
operation that contains both "input" and "output" elements.
C. The value of "rpc" is not a valid value for the "style" attribute.
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Your company has developed a PO service that allows customers to submit purchase order documents.
The message sent by a customer must be based on a predefined "purchaseOrder" element and the
message received by the customer is based on a "messageAcknowledgement" element. These two
elements are defined in the following two separate XML Schema definitions: The "purchaseOrder.xsd"
schema:
Note that these two schemas have different namespaces. That is because the "purchaseOrder.xsd"
schema is specific to purchase order-related functions, while the "ack.xsd" schema is more generic and
used for a variety of different purposes.
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: A

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Les meilleures SOA Certified Professional S90-01A C90-06A S90-20A examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: S90-01A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Fundamental SOA & Service-Oriented Computing)
Questions et réponses: 76 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C90-06A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Cloud Architecture Lab)
Questions et réponses: 15 Q&As

Code d'Examen: S90-20A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Security Lab)
Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

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NO.1 Cloud Sen/ice A is hosted by Virtual Server A, which is hosted by Hypervisor A on Physical
Server
A. Cloud Service B is hosted by Virtual Server B.
Virtual Server C hosts Cloud Services C and D.
Virtual Server B and Virtual Server C are hosted by Hypervisor B on Physical Server B.
Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A (1). Cloud Service Consumer B accesses Cloud
Service A (2). Cloud Service Consumer C accesses Cloud Service A (3) and then accesses Cloud
Service B (4).
Cloud Service Consumers A, B and C simultaneously access Cloud Service A.
Cloud Service Consumer C receives a runtime exception and its request for access is rejected. It is
determined that Cloud Service Consumer C attempted to upload a large amount of input data for
Cloud Service A, which exceeded the bandwidth threshold of the virtual network. The cloud
architecture needs to be improved to avoid this from happening again.
Cloud Service Consumer C's repeated access of Cloud Service B imposes workloads that are large
and highly unpredictable. After some time, Cloud Service B begins to delay its responses and
sometimes times out entirely. The cloud resource administrator discovers that Virtual Server B is
unstable and close to failure primarily because its CPU and memory resources are being used to
their maximum capacity.
Cloud Services C and D are being positioned as SaaS products for use by a range of cloud consumer
organizations. After their initial release, they begin to quickly use up the available memory in Virtual
Server C, primarily because of the large amounts of state and session data they need to place into
memory for extended periods.
Which of the following statements lists the patterns that can be applied to solve these three
requirements and problems?
A. Elastic Network Capacity, Load Balanced Virtual Server Instances, Service State Management
B. Elastic Resource Capacity, Service Load Balancing, Synchronized Operating State
C. Persistent Virtual Network Configuration. Load Balanced Virtual Switches, Service State
Management
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Cloud Service A requires access to Cloud Storage Device A, which contains LUNs A and B.
Cloud Service A is hosted by Virtual Server A, which resides on Hypervisor A on Physical Server A.
Virtual Server B hosts Cloud Service B and Cloud Service C.
Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A (1), which then accesses LUN A or B on Cloud
Storage Device A (2). After receiving the requested data from Cloud Service A, Cloud Service
Consumer A forwards the data to Cloud Service B (3), which then writes it to Cloud Storage Device B
(4).
Cloud Service Consumer A belongs to Organization A.
Organization A uses LUN A and LUN B on Cloud Storage Device A to store their important client
account data. Cloud Storage Device A is a low-performance cloud storage device, which begins to
cause performance issues as more data is added to LUNs A and B and as Cloud Service Consumer A
performs data access requests more frequently. Organization A asks that its cloud architecture be
upgraded to process increased quantities of data and higher volumes of data requests.
Organization A has been leasing a PaaS environment that it used to build Cloud Service A, which it
would like to make available to the general public. Organization A needs to establish a system
capable of monitoring usage of Cloud Service A for billing purposes.
The cloud provider is using a usage data collection and reporting system that gathers information on
Organization A's hosted IT resources approximately ten hours after the time of usage. One day,
Organization A attempts to retrieve information on whether Virtual Server B has available Cloud
Service C instances. They discover that they are unable to obtain the current status of Virtual Server
B.
Organization A demands a system that provides instant availability reporting.
Which of the following statements lists the patterns that can be applied to solve these three
requirements and problems?
Which of the following statements lists the patterns that can be applied to solve these three
requirements and problems?
A. Cross-Storage Device Vertical Tiering, Pay-as-You-Go. Self-Provisioning
B. Service Load Balancing, Pay-as-You-Go, Multipath Resource Access
C. Intra-Storage Device Vertical Data Tiering, Usage Monitoring, Centralized Remote Administration
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Cloud Storage Device A contains LUN A and can be accessed by external cloud consumers via a
proprietary user portal that is used primarily by cloud consumers to upload and manage data for
backup purposes. Pay-Per-Use Monitor A tracks the amount of data being uploaded and forwards
this information to a billing management system. Cloud Storage Device B is a secondary cloud
storage device. Data from Cloud Storage Device A is replicated synchronously to Cloud Storage
Device B using a storage replication program (not shown). Cloud Storage Device A is further
administered by a cloud resource administrator that works for the cloud provider, who accesses the
cloud storage device via an internal usage and administration portal.
Three different cloud consumers (Sarah. William, Matilda) access Cloud Storage Device A to upload
data for backup purposes (1). These three cloud consumers belong to different
departments within the same organization, and therefore all three share LUN A.
Pay-Per-Use Monitor A collects the storage space data and forwards it to the billing management
system (2).
The cloud provider offers premium and discount storage plans. With the premium plan, the data
stored on Cloud Storage Device A is also replicated to Cloud Storage Device B.
With the discount plan, the data stored on Cloud Storage Device A is not replicated. Both plans are
based on fixed-disk storage allocation. The cost of the premium plan is $5 per week for every GB of
storage space and the cost of the discount plan is $2 per week for every GB of storage space. The
SLA from the cloud provider guarantees availability of 97% for access to Cloud Storage Device A.
The three cloud consumers use Cloud Storage Device A as follows:
-Sara signs up for the discount backup plan and is allocated 50 GBs of storage space. A week later,
she uploads 10 GBs of backup data. A week after that, she uploads another 35 GBs. She later finds
out that for those two weeks her organization was billed $200, which is more than she was
expecting. After she complains to the cloud provider, she learns about how fixed-disk storage
allocation is billed. She asks the cloud provider to change her account to a different
storage plan where she is only billed for the actual amount of storage space she uses at any
given time. The cloud provider assures her that a new system will be set up to accommodate
this request.
-William is on the premium backup plan. He uploads 1 to 3 GBs of important business data every
day. After two weeks of daily uploads, he realizes that the centralized nature of the backup data on
the cloud makes it more convenient for reporting purposes than the distributed nature of the same
data in his on-premise environment. He uses an analysis tool to run queries against the cloud-based
data. However, due to the large quantity of redundant data, the queries end up being ineffective
and take too long to run. He asks the cloud provider to find a solution that can streamline the
cloud-based data by reducing redundancy. By reducing the overall quantity of the data, the analysis
queries will run faster.
-Matilda is on the discount backup plan and uploads backup data on a daily basis. Over the course
of two weeks she uploads over 200 GBs of data. She performs a daily backup at the end of each day
by identifying the data to back up and then using the proprietary user portal to run the cloud
backup procedure. This procedure can take 5 to 45 minutes, depending on the amount of data she
is uploading. Matilda performs this as her last task of the day and therefore initiates the procedure
before she leaves, but does not wait for it to complete. One day, she receives an e-mail from the
cloud provider explaining that the backup procedure from the previous day had failed due to an
unexpected hardware failure that occurred on Cloud Storage Device A.
The notification e-mail goes on to state that this type of failure falls within the 97% availability
guarantee of her organization's SLA, and is therefore in compliance with the current provisioning
agreement. Had a disaster occurred that night, the on-premise data could have been lost and
Matilda would be held accountable. Matilda contacts the cloud provider to demand that the
provisioning agreement be amended to upgrade their existing SLA to the maximum possible
availability (which, for this cloud provider, is 99.999%). The cloud provider agrees to establish a
system to accommodate this request.
Which of the following statements lists the patterns that can be applied to address the three issues
raised by the three cloud consumers?
A. Storage Workload Management, Elastic Disk Provisioning, Centralized Remote Administration
B. Elastic Disk Provisioning, Dynamic Data Normalization, Zero Downtime
C. Storage Maintenance Window, Dynamic Failure Detection and Recovery, Broad Access
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Ready-Made Environment A is hosted by Virtual Server A and Ready-Made Environments is
hosted by Virtual Server B.
Virtual Servers A and B are hosted by Hypervisor A, which is part of a hypervisor cluster. An
automated scaling listener intercepts cloud consumer requests and automatically invokes the
on-demand generation of additional instances of ready-made environments, as required.
A self-service portal and a usage and administration portal are also available to cloud consumers.
The self-service portal can be used to request the provisioning of a new ready-made environment.
Any cloud consumer that has already had a ready-made environment provisioned can configure and
view information about that ready-made environment via the usage and administration portal.
Cloud Consumer A accesses Ready-Made Environment A to work on the development of a new
cloud service (1). Cloud Consumer B accesses Ready-Made Environment B to test a recently
completed application comprised of three cloud services (2). Cloud Consumer C accesses the
self-service portal to request the creation of a new ready-made environment (3).
The cloud provider is required to perform an emergency maintenance outage on a cloud storage
device used by all ready-made environments. The unplanned outage takes two hours. During this
period, Cloud Consumers A and B are unable to access Ready-Made Environments A and B and
Cloud Consumer C receives an error when submitting a request to create a new ready-made
environment.
After the maintenance outage is over, Cloud Consumers A and B encounter the following problems:
-Cloud Consumer A is unable to recover session data that was kept in memory for an extended
period, prior to the time of the outage. -Cloud Consumer B has no access to Virtual Server B, which
was moved to Hypervisor B during
the maintenance outage. When Cloud Consumer B attempts to ping Virtual Server B, the
request times out.
Even though Cloud Consumer C is able to log into the usage and administration portal to confirm
that its ready-made environment was successfully provisioned, the unexpected outage has raised
concerns about the stability of the ready-made environment's underlying infrastructure. Cloud
Consumer C informs the cloud provider that it cannot proceed with its lease of the ready-made
environment if there are future occurrences of this type of maintenance outage.
Which of the following statements can help address the problems and concerns of the three cloud
consumers?
A. A combination of the Load Balanced Virtual Server Instances and Synchronized Operating State
patterns can be applied to establish a system capable of deferring state across multiple cloud
storage devices, each located on a different virtual server. The Elastic Disk Provisioning pattern can
be applied to persist virtual server configuration data across hypervisors so that connectivity is
preserved whenever a virtual server is relocated to a different hypervisor. The Zero Downtime
pattern can be applied to ensure that none of the ready-made environments or virtual servers are
subject to a maintenance outage in the future.
B. The Elastic Disk Provisioning and Cross-Storage Device Vertical Tiering patterns can be applied to
establish a cloud architecture that supports a set of cloud storage devices, each with different tiers
that cloud consumers can choose to scale to The Synchronized Operating State pattern can be
applied in combination with the Hypervisor Clustering pattern to avoid further virtual server and
ready-made environment connectivity problems. The Redundant Storage pattern can be applied so
that if a cloud storage device fails, a secondary implementation of the cloud storage device
automatically takes over processing tasks, thereby avoiding outages.
C. The Service State Management pattern can be appliedto establish a system that canpersist
session data in a database. The Persistent Virtual Network Configuration pattern can be applied to
centralize the configuration data necessary for virtual servers to remain accessible after they have
been relocated to different hypervisors. The Storage Maintenance Window pattern can be applied
to establish a system that allows cloud storage devices to be maintained without causing outages.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Cloud Service A is hosted by Virtual Server A, which is hosted by Hypervisor A that resides on
Physical Server A.
Cloud Storage Device A is used to store media library data that is continuously replicated with a
redundant, secondary implementation of Cloud Storage A (not shown). Access to Cloud Service A is
monitored by Pay-Per-Use Monitor A.
Access to Cloud Storage Device A is monitored by Pay-Per-Use Monitor B.
Pay-Per-Use Monitors A and B capture billing-related usage data that is forwarded to a billing
management system that is hosted by Physical Server B.
Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A and the usage data is captured by Pay-Per-Use
Monitor A (1). Cloud Consumer B accesses Cloud Storage Device A via a usage and administration
portal that it uses to upload media data (2). This usage is captured by Pay-Per-Use Monitor B (3).
Pay-Per-Use Monitors A and B store collected usage data in the billing management system (4),
which is later used by the cloud provider to bill for the usage of Cloud Service A and Cloud Storage
Device A.
Each service instance of Cloud Service A requires a virtual server with 2 virtual CPUs and 4 GBs of
RAM at a package price of $2.00 for each initial invocation and an additional $0.50 for each
consecutive 60 seconds of usage. Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A twice in one
day. The two exchanges with Cloud Service A last 60 seconds and 120 seconds. For that one day, the
organization that owns Cloud Service Consumer A is billed $6.50, which it determines is incorrect.
After complaining to the cloud provider, it is discovered that the rapid provisioning system
responsible for provisioning instances of Cloud Service A is not de-provisioning Cloud Service A
when Cloud Service Consumer A indicates it has completed an exchange. Instead, Cloud Service A is
de-provisioned after a 60 second timeout that occurs after Cloud Service Consumer A is completed
with an exchange.
Storage space on Cloud Storage Device A can only be purchased in units of terabytes (TBs), with
each TB costing $1 per day. Cloud Consumer B purchases 5 TBs of storage space on day 1 and stores
5 TBs of data on days 6 and 7. Cloud Consumer B was expecting to be billed $10.00, but is billed $35.
After raising a complaint, Cloud Consumer B is informed by the cloud provider that cloud consumers
are billed based on the allocation of storage space, regardless of how much storage space they
actually use.
Which of the following statements describes a solution that can update the cloud architecture to
avoid these billing-related problems and discrepancies?
A. The Pay-as-You-Go pattern can be applied together with the Usage Monitoring pattern to
establish a monitoring and billing system capable of de-provisioning Cloud Service A instances when
they are no longer required. The Dynamic Data Normalization pattern can be applied to eliminate
any redundant data stored by Cloud Consumer A so that the amount of required storage space is
minimized.
B. The Platform Provisioning pattern can be applied to create an intelligent automation script
capable of immediately de-provisioning cloud service instances. The Redundant Storage pattern can
be applied to introduce a secondary cloud storage device for which storage space can be billed
based on actual usage.
C. The Self-Provisioning pattern can be applied to enable the organization that owns Cloud Service
Consumer B to configure how and to what extent Cloud Service A instances need to be provisioned.
The Resource Management pattern can be applied to establish a storage system that bills cloud
consumers for actual storage space usage only.
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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