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Code d'Examen: A2150-533
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assess: IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1)
Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

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NO.1 How many computer(s) does the Recommended option install on in the Deployment
Manager?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which optional component writes incoming event data to disk based on user-created
event filters?
A. Incident Safe
B. Event Logger
C. Event Archiver
D. Agent Archiver
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which two items are important considerations for performance? (Choose two.)
A. agent events per day
B. agent purges per day
C. agent updates per day
D. agent heartbeats per day
E. agent installations per day
Answer: AD

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NO.4 A customer has deployed an Express installation. What is the default action when the
database
reaches 85% of capacity?
A. The database will continue processing normally without purging.
B. The database will begin purging up to 5% of the oldest data from the database.
C. The database will begin purging up to 10% of the oldest data from the database.
D. The database will begin purging up to 15% of the oldest data from the database.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which three components are installed individually by the Deployment Manager?
(Choose three.)
A. Event Archiver
B. Agent Manager
C. Database Server
D. Application Server
E. X-Press Update Server
F. SecurityFusion Module
Answer: ABE

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NO.6 The customer is planning to deploy 50,000 desktops. At a minimum, how many
standalone Event
Collector / Agent Manager pairs should be configured to communicate with the database?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

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NO.7 How much system hard drive space is required for the IBM Security SiteProtector
Systems V2.0 SP8.1
Database in the Recommended option?
A. 9 GB
B. 18 GB
C. 27 GB
D. 36 GB
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are two requirements before upgrading the IBM Security SiteProtector Systems
V2.0 SP8.1
Core component? (Choose two.)
A. close all local consoles
B. put the SQL Server in single user mode
C. reboot the server after applying the update
D. disable all Event Collectors/Agent Managers
E. ensure administrative rights in order to log on to the Application Server computer
Answer: AE

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NO.9 Which components are installed during step two of a Recommended installation using
the Deployment
Manager in IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1?
A. Site Database, Console
B. Site Database, Event Collector
C. Application Server, Event Collector
D. Application Server, Agent Manager
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which product combination would merit the consideration of IBM Security SiteProtector
Systems V2.0
SP8.1 SecurityFusion?
A. IBM Network Intrusion and IBM Security Server Protection
B. IBM Network Intrusion Prevention Systems and IBM Security Desktop
C. IBM Network Intrusion Prevention and IBM Security Network Enterprise Scanner
D. IBM Network Intrusion Prevention and IBM Security Virtual Server Protection for VMware
Answer: C

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NO.11 A corporation is deploying IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1 and plans
to use Enterprise
Scanner to scan their various business departments each with their own assessment policy.
Additionally,
network subnets may require a different policy within each department. Which top to bottom
group
structure hierarchy best satisfies their needs?
A. ACME > Department > Subnet
B. Subnet > Department > ACME
C. Subnet > ACME > Department
D. ACME > Subnet > Department
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which pre-defined security user group permits an employee to work with events and
all reports except
for Permissions and Audit Detail?
A. Analyst
B. Operator
C. Administrator
D. Event Manager
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which three operating systems meet the requirements for installing the IBM Security
SiteProtector
Systems V2.0 SP8.1 Database in the Recommended option? (Choose three.)
A. Windows XP Professional SP2
B. Windows Server 2008 Standard
C. Windows 2000 Advanced Server
D. Windows Server 2008 Enterprise
E. Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition
F. Windows Server 2003 SP2 Standard Edition
Answer: BDF

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NO.14 Which two virtual platforms are supported for running IBM Security SiteProtector
Systems V2.0 SP8.1?
(Choose two.)
A. Windows Virtual PC
B. VMware ESX Server V4.x
C. VMware ESX Server V3.x
D. VMware Workstation V7.1
E. Microsoft Virtual Server 2003
Answer: BC

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NO.15 What can be used to create a valid group membership rule?
A. AssetID
B. ProductID
C. IP Address
D. MAC Address
Answer: D

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NO.16 According to the IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0 SP8.1 scalability guidelines,
what is the
maximum event rate and maximum heartbeat rate per day for a small deployment?
A. 25,000 events / 500 heartbeats
B. 50,000 events / 1,000 heartbeats
C. 100,000 events / 5,000 heartbeats
D. 125,000 events / 7,000 heartbeats
Answer: B

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NO.17 According to the scalability guidelines for a large site, a customer should have at least
what speed hard
disks available to the database server?
A. 5400 RPM
B. 7200 RPM
C. 10000 RPM
D. 15000 RPM
Answer: D

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NO.18 How is an Event Collector upgraded in the IBM Security SiteProtector Systems V2.0
SP8.1 Console?
A. right-click on Event Collector > Update > Apply XPU
B. right-click on Event Collector > UpdateServer > Update EventCollector
C. using the Manual Upgrader tool, choose Event Collector from the list then click Apply
Update
D. using the X-Press Update Server, choose Event Collector from the list then click Apply
Update
Answer: A

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NO.19 What must be entered during the Agent Manager installation?
A. SQL Server Address, Agent Manager Address
B. Application Server Address, SQL Server Address
C. SQL Authentication Method, Agent Manager Address
D. Application Server Address, SQL Authentication Method
Answer: B

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NO.20 What function does the Deployment Manager provide in IBM Security SiteProtector
Systems V2.0
SP8.1 (SiteProtector)?
A. It provides a Web-based interface for users to install SiteProtector components.
B. It automatically distributes X-Press Update Server updates to SiteProtector components.
C. It generates Proventia Desktop Agent builds and distributes them to computers on a
network.
D. It provides a Web-based interface for users to install service packs to SiteProtector
components.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: A2180-608
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: IBM WebSphere Process Server V7.0, Deployment)
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 A deployment professional is asked to investigate a failure in a business process.
However, the specific
process instance being investigated is still running. After close examination, one of the
activities of the
process instance is stopped. What action should the deployment professional take to resolve
this issue so
that the current process navigation can continue?
A. Change Continue On Error setting of the process template to no but make sure this setting
is
overridden at the activity scope to a value of yes.
B. Change Continue On Error setting of the process template to yes and ensure this setting is
inherited at
the activity scope.
C. Examine the variables of the stopped activity and update the values as necessary, and
save the
settings.
D. Set the expiration for the stopped activity so that after a specified interval the activity
terminates and
the process can continue.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A deployment professional is installing an application which uses business processes
in a clustered
WebSphere Process Server environment. The Business Process Choreographer (BPC)
container has
previously been configured. During which phase of the installation is the application
validated?
A. During the installation phase on the node agent.
B. During the installation phase on the deployment manager.
C. During the configuration phase on the application server.
D. During the application start phase on the application server.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A retail company has the requirement to make frequent changes to a long running
MyProcessDiscount business process as newer versions of that process are introduced due
to changing
business needs. What approach should a deployment professional adopt to meet this
requirement?
A. Stop the older version of the MyProcessDiscount process template from the Integrated
Solutions Console (ISC), install the application containing the newer version of the business
process
template.
B. Use the Business Process Choreographer Explorer, select all the running instances with
name
MyProcessDiscount business process, then choose the Migrate option to migrate all
instances to the
currently valid version of the business
process template.
C. Use the Business Process Choreographer Explorer, if you see any running instances of
older version
of MyProcessDiscount process template,
wait till all the instances of that version of the template are completed, then remove the older
version of
the business process template and install the newer version of the business process
template.
D. Install the application containing the newer version of MyProcessDiscount process
template, then
using the Business Process Choreographer Explorer, monitor the state of the running
process instances
and, when execution is in the appropriate place in the flow of the business process, select the
business
process instances based on the older template only to migrate to the newer version.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A deployment professional is performing a review of the audit and logging practices
being used. One of
the items under review is the current level of logging configured for the Human Task
Manager. The site
database administrator requires that any changes made which affect the amount and type of
data being
stored to the database must be reviewed and approved prior to implementation. Which of the
following log
settings would impact the data stored to the database?
A. Audit logging
B. Failed event logging
C. Task history logging
D. Common Event Infrastructure (CEI) logging
Answer: A

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NO.5 A company has deployed many applications accessing the same backend services.
Many of the
applications share the same WSDL and Business Objects. New applications to be deployed
in the near
future will use updated backend service definitions. In addition, the memory usage has
dramatically
increased over the last deployments and may prevent new application deployments on the
same
environment. Which of the following recommendations would a deployment professional
MOST likely
provide?
A. The development team must review the applications and provide a single module for the
backend
access. Shared WSDL and Business Objects
can be deployed with the new application.
B. The development team should identify common artifacts used by the application. A shared
library can
be deployed independently and
referenced by the applications.
C. The environment must be prepared for new applications by increasing the heap size of the
servers or
new servers must be added to the
environment to share the workload.
D. The system administrator can deploy new applications including all libraries needed.
During the
deployment the libraries of other applications with the needed WSDL and Business Objects
can be
referenced as a shared library.
Answer: B

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NO.6 WebSphere Process Server (WPS) V7.0 introduces a new Service Component
Architecture (SCA)
container. Which of the following changes in the architecture result in improved performance?
A. There is no dependency for an EJB container for WPS V7.0 applications.
B. The new Business Object Runtime Framework replaces the old Business Object
framework.
C. Code generation, validation, and packaging is fully covered during the application
deployment.
D. Applications for WPS V6.2 and previous releases are automatically migrated to V7.0
during
deployment.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A clustered WebSphere Process Server (WPS) production environment consists of a
remote messaging
cluster with multiple active messaging engines (ME) configured for high throughput. During
the testing of
an application which uses MQ JMS export for in-take of messages, the integration developer
has found
out that the messages were arriving on the backend EIS application at random order which
was not
desirable. This was not the observed behavior when the application was tested in the
Universal Test
Environment (UTE) within WebSphere Integration Developer (WID).
Source Application --------> MQ JMS Export ----------> EIS Application
What is the combination of actions to reconfigure the resources in the production
environment in order to
achieve the expected behavior?
A. 1, 2
B. 1, 3
C. 1, 4
D. 2, 3
Answer: A

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NO.8 A deployment professional is installing a new business process application. The
deployment
professional is using a script installation with the installInteractive option so that they are
prompted for
values during the installation process. What is the reason for this installation approach?
A. The interactive configuration script provides an audit log of the installation for revision
control
purposes.
B. Installation with the interactive configuration script is faster than using the Integrated
Solutions Console
(ISC).
C. Some configuration values must be specified which are not available using the Integrated
Solutions
Console (ISC) wizard interface.
D. When configuring with an interactive script, it is not necessary to specify information about
the
application required data sources.
Answer: C

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NO.9 In a company all the applications deployed in a WebSphere Process Server network
deployment
environment extensively leverage asynchronous messaging with JMS bindings. There is a
requirement to
resubmit the messages in case of infrastructure failures or planned shutdown.
What is the suggested message reliability level that could be proposed in this situation.?
A. Assured persistent
B. Reliable persistent
C. Reliable non-persistent
D. Best effort non-persistent
Answer: A

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NO.10 An application which uses Business Processes extensively has found that there is an
excessive number
of messages being sent to the hold queue. The deployment professional is asked to modify
the
configuration of the Business Process Choreographer (BPC) settings for that server in an
effort to reduce
the amount of messages in the hold queue. Which value should be changed to improve this
situation?
A. Retry limit
B. Process limit
C. Hold queue timeout
D. Retention queue message limit
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: C6040-754
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Retail Store Solutions - Windows Technical Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer is upgrading their POS application. The new application will store all data
and configurations
on the store server, which has redundant disks. The customer is concerned about using disk
space wisely
and would like a plan that has a short recovery period. Which backup plan is most
appropriate for this
customer?
A. perform a nightly backup of all terminals to be stored on the store server
B. perform a nightly backup of the store server to be stored on an external backup drive
C. perform a weekly backup of all terminals to be stored on the terminal's internal hard drive
D. perform a weekly backup of the store server to be stored on the server's internal hard
drive
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer wants to upgrade the operating system on their existing POS terminal
hardware. What is the
most important question to consider when determining if this upgrade is possible?
A. Will the existing POS terminal's hardware support the new operating system?
B. Will the new POS terminal's hardware support the existing operating system?
C. Will the new POS printer's connectivity support the existing operating system?
D. Will the existing POS printer's connectivity support the existing operating system?
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer is implementing a POS application that requires continuous connectivity to
a host
application at the corporate office. Which network feature can this customer implement at the
store-level
to ensure that connectivity to the corporate office from the store is available?
A. an in-store DNS server
B. a backup network switch
C. a backup instance of the host application
D. a dial or DSL backup for the store's WAN connection
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer is upgrading their store system to include new POS terminal hardware and
peripherals, new store servers, and a new POS application. What is the best time to begin
the store
migration project to reduce the impact on the store and allow time for system testing?
A. after the store opens the day of the migration
B. after the store closes the day of the migration
C. before the store opens the day of the migration
D. before the store closes the day of the migration
Answer: B

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NO.5 The client team has proposed a POS system upgrade to a customer. This upgrade
includes migrating
the customer from a standard LCD display to a 4820 SurePoint touchscreen which the
customer wants to
use with their existing POS application. Which factor is most important for the customer to
consider when
reviewing this proposed upgrade?
A. How will the 4820 SurePoint display be mounted?
B. What is the screen size of the 4820 SurePoint display?
C. Was the existing POS application designed for touch operation?
D. What is the touch technology used by the 4820 SurePoint display?
Answer: C

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NO.6 A proposal includes the 4610 1NR printer that is connected via powered USB. What
are two benefits of
the proposed solution.? (Choose two.)
A. The printer provides a document insert station.
B. The printer is seen as an RS-232 device in Windows.
C. The printer has sensors that can report on the status of its components.
D. The printer can be driven by the application through direct communication.
E. The printer can be driven by the application through a Native Windows Driver.
Answer: C,E

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NO.7 After a customer has completed configuration of a Microsoft Windows POSReady 2009
preloaded
solution, and the POS is rebooted, Microsoft Windows prompts for the Administrator
password to log on.
How should the technical specialist assist the customer with obtaining this password?
A. advise the customer that the Administrator password is blank
B. advise the customer to use the system serial number as the Administrator password
C. provide the customer with the default password ('password'), which is the same for all
systems
D. refer the customer to the README file on the system hard drive for the password for that
system
Answer: D

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NO.8 A customer reports that the touch panel on their IBM AnyPlace Kiosk is no longer
working. Which step
should be taken to determine if the issue is hardware related?
A. test the touch panel on a SurePOS 300 system
B. install the latest version of BIOS and reset the default settings
C. test the functionality of the touch panel when in the BIOS Setup Utility
D. ensure that the latest version of touch drivers are installed on the system
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which tool can be used to duplicate the gold system?
A. IBM Director
B. Windows System Restore
C. Remote Management Agent
D. Tivoli Provisioning Manager
Answer: D

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NO.10 A customer is interested in the hardware system information that can be provided by
RMA. When
setting up the lab environment, which component is required on the POS terminal to obtain
this
information?
A. IBM Director
B. IBM UPOS driver
C. USB filter driver
D. IBM POS sensor driver
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: P2070-093
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture Product Fundamentals Technical Mastery Test v1)
Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

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NO.1 The two main databases serviced by Taskmaster Server are called:
A. Alpha and Beta.
B. Test and Production.
C. Maintenance and Security.
D. Admin and Engine.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is a primary competitive advantage of Rulerunner Service?
A. Actions only return TRUE or FALSE.
B. It is decoupled from Taskmaster so it can be used with other applications.
C. It is the only capture product with claims of being rule driven.
D. It is open source.
Answer: B

IBM   P2070-093   P2070-093   P2070-093   P2070-093

NO.3 Which of the following is TRUE.?
A. Taskmaster Server pushes work to machines dedicated to a specific task.
B. Taskmaster clients ask Taskmaster server if there is any work to be done.
C. Only one Taskmaster client may perform a given Task.
D. Batch routing depends on the Taskmaster server configuration.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C2040-921
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Portal 7.0 Migration and Support)
Questions et réponses: 78 Q&As

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NO.1 Which one of the following tools would allow all external web applications to be
integrated with IBM
WebSphere Portal?
A. Web application integrator
B. Lotus Mashups Center
C. WebSphere Web Enabler
D. IBM My Places portlet
Answer: A

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NO.2 Tony wants to migrate the web content data from WebSphere Portal V6.O to
WebSphere Portal V7.O.
Which of the following options does he need to do?
A. He needs to run the wcmmigrate all-data task to migrate the web content data.
B. He needs to run the WPmigrate migrate-wcm task to migrate the web content data.
C. He needs to make a copy of WebSphere Portal V6.O JCR repository and run the
ConfigEngine
connect-database task to connect to the copy of the JCR repository.
D. He needs to make a copy of WebSphere here Portal V6.O JCR repository and run a
ConfigEngine task
to connect to the copy of the JCR repository.
Answer: D

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NO.3 How many different ways can tracing be enabled?
A. 0; tracing is enabled by default
B. 1; tracing can be enabled by using the WebSphere Application Server administrative
console
C. 2; tracing can be enabled by using the WebSphere Application Server administrative
console or by
using the WebSphere Portal page named Enable Tracing.
D. 3; tracing can be enabled by using the WebSphere Application Server administrative
console, the
WebSphere Portal page named Enable Tracing, or by using the log.properties file.
Answer: C

IBM   C2040-921   C2040-921 examen

NO.4 Which of the following is not supported in a WSRP rendering portlet.?
A. Secure access to content
B. Use of authoring tools component
C. Use of file resource component
D. Use of Taxonomy component
Answer: B

IBM   C2040-921   C2040-921 examen

NO.5 Site management has been enabled for the GreenCo portal environment. Wendy
creates a page and
goes to Site Management in Administrator and publishes it to the production server. The
publish operation
fails. What has Wendy failed to do?
A. Give the page a unique name.
B. Remove the portlets from the page.
C. Run the JACL script $update-page.
D. Page locks exist on the page, she needs to unlock the page.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: JK0-019
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 637 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following network appliances would facilitate an even amount of traffic hitting each web
server?
A. Load balancer
B. VPN concentrator
C. Proxy server
D. Content filter
Answer: A

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NO.2 Two duplicate pieces of equipment can be used in conjunction for which of the following purposes?
(Select TWO)
A. High availability
B. Fault tolerance
C. Reduce latency
D. Wi-MAX
E. CARP
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 Which of the following TCP/IP and OSI model layers retransmits a TCP packet if it is not received
successfully at its destination?
A. The transport OSI model layer and the transport TCP/IP model layer
B. The transport OSI model layer and the Internet TCP/IP model layer
C. The network OSI model layer and the transport TCP/IP model layer
D. The network OSI model layer and the Internet TCP/IP model layer
Answer: A

CompTIA   JK0-019 examen   JK0-019

NO.4 Which of the following network scanners detects and sends out alerts for malicious network activity?
A. Packet sniffers
B. IDS
C. Port scanners
D. IPS
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following is an example of two-factor authentication?
A. A username and PIN
B. A username and password
C. A username, password, finger print scan, and smart card
D. A username, password, and key fob number
Answer: D

CompTIA examen   JK0-019   JK0-019 examen

NO.6 The location that the local network connection ends and the ISP responsibility begins is known as the:
A. Access point.
B. Default gateway.
C. IDF connection.
D. Demarcation point.
Answer: D

CompTIA   JK0-019   JK0-019 examen

NO.7 Sandy, a technician, installs a new WAP and users are able to connect; however, users cannot access
the Internet. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. The signal strength has been degraded and latency is increasing hop count.
B. An incorrect subnet mask has been entered in the WAP configuration.
C. The signal strength has been degraded and packets are being lost.
D. Users have specified the wrong encryption type and routes are being rejected.
Answer: B

CompTIA   JK0-019 examen   JK0-019

NO.8 Joe, a technician, is configuring ports on a switch. He turns off auto-negotiation and sets the port
speed to 1000 Mbps. A user s PC is no longer able to access the network.
Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?
A. The user s NIC does not support 1Gbps
B. The switch is not compatible with 1000Mbps.
C. The user's NIC does not support 100Mbps.
D. Joe needs to restart the DNS server.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Joe, a user, is unable to reach websites, but is able to ping several Internet IPv4 addresses. Which of
the following is the MOST likely problem?
A. Incorrect subnet mask
B. Incorrect DNS
C. Missing default gateway
D. Incorrect IPv6 address
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following sizes is the fixed cell length in ATM?
A. 8 bytes
B. 53 bytes
C. 64 kilobytes
D. 128 kilobytes
Answer: B

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NO.11 Sandy, a network administrator, wants to be able to block all already known malicious activity.
Which of the following would allow her to perform this activity.?
A. Behavioral Based IDS
B. Signature Based IDS
C. Behavioral Based IPS
D. Signature Based IPS
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following is a form of encrypting packets for safe, secure data transmission within a
network?
A. RAS
B. PPTP
C. IPSec
D. ICA
Answer: C

CompTIA   certification JK0-019   JK0-019

NO.13 Joe, a network technician, is tasked with installing a router and firewall to get an office working with
Internet access.
Which of the following features MUST be configured to allow sharing of a single public IP address?
A. QoS
B. POP3
C. PAT
D. SMTP
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following network topologies, when a single machine's cable breaks, would only affect one
network device and not the rest of the network?
A. Bus
B. Peer-to-peer
C. Ring
D. Star
Answer: D

CompTIA   JK0-019   JK0-019   certification JK0-019

NO.15 A company has only three laptops that connect to their wireless network. The company is currently
using WEP encryption on their wireless network. They have noticed unauthorized connections on their
WAP and want to secure their wireless connection to prevent this.
Which of the following security measures would BEST secure their wireless network? (Select TWO).
A. Change the encryption method to WPA
B. Limit the DHCP scope to only have three addresses total
C. Enable the SSID broadcast
D. Enable and configure MAC filtering
E. Change the broadcast channel to a less commonly used channel
Answer: A,D

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NO.16 Sandy, a technician, wants to limit access to a wireless network to company owned laptops, but does
not want to use an encryption method. Which of the following methods would be BEST to accomplish
this?
A. MAC filtering
B. SSL VPN
C. PPPoE
D. WPA Enterprise
Answer: A

CompTIA   certification JK0-019   JK0-019

NO.17 Which of the following should Joe, a technician, do FIRST when setting up a SOHO network?
A. Set up an account with an Internet service provider.
B. Create a list of requirements and constraints.
C. Arrange a domain name with a suitable registrar.
D. Choose the correct operating system version.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following would Joe, a technician, configure to modify the time a device will hold an IP
address provided through DHCP?
A. DNS suffixes
B. Leases
C. Static IP addressing
D. Reservations
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following connector types would Sandy, a network technician, use to connect a serial
cable?
A. RJ-11
B. BNC
C. LC
D. DB-9
Answer: D

CompTIA   JK0-019   JK0-019 examen

NO.20 Sandy, the network administrator, has funding to do a major upgrade of the company s LAN. This
upgrade is currently in the planning stage, and Sandy still needs to determine the network requirements,
bottlenecks, and any future upgrades in mind. Which of the following is the FIRST step in the planning
process?
A. Conduct a vulnerability scan
B. Establish a network baseline
C. Conduct traffic analysis
D. Conduct a risk assessment
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: JK0-801
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA A+ Certification Exam (JK0-801))
Questions et réponses: 266 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following computer components are located on the Northbridge? (Select TWO).
A. Hard drive
B. CPU
C. Fan
D. RAM
E. Audio
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 A client wants to take their old VCR tapes and put them on a DVD. Which of the following
expansion cards would need to be installed in a computer to perform this task?
A. TV tuner
B. Video graphics
C. Sound
D. Video capture
Answer: D

CompTIA examen   JK0-801   JK0-801

NO.3 Which of the following BEST describes the function of DHCP?
A. Blocks MAC address with security violations
B. Translates IP addresses to names
C. Encrypts data traffic on a network
D. Assigns IP addresses on a network
Answer: D

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NO.4 Besides the CPU, which of the following components might have their own heatsink?
A. Audio card
B. RAID controller
C. Graphics card
D. Hard drive
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following socket types is for an Intel CPU?
A. F
B. 940
C. AM3
D. 1156
Answer: D

CompTIA   JK0-801   JK0-801

NO.6 Which of the following memory features allows for the protection against random
inconsistencies
in the transfer of the data?
A. Low latency
B. Dual channel
C. ECC
D. Single channel
Answer: C

CompTIA   JK0-801   JK0-801   JK0-801

NO.7 The helpdesk technician has been tasked to reinstall the OS on a desktop and has already
inserted the OS install disk in the CD-ROM. Which of the following would MOST likely need to be
configured within the BIOS to continue reinstalling the OS?
A. BIOS password
B. Flash BIOS for firmware upgrade
C. Boot sequence
D. Clock speeds
Answer: C

CompTIA   certification JK0-801   JK0-801   JK0-801

NO.8 Which of the following can be used to change fan speeds?
A. Device manager
B. BIOS
C. Power options
D. Action center
Answer: B

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NO.9 A client wants to store video and music in one central location and stream it to multiple
devices.
Which of the following would BEST fill this need?
A. Home theater
B. Virtualization workstation
C. Home server
D. Gaming
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following cable types has the MAXIMUM transfer rate of 1 Gbps?
A. CAT3
B. CAT5
C. CAT5e
D. CAT6
Answer: C

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