显示标签为“ST0-025”的博文。显示所有博文
显示标签为“ST0-025”的博文。显示所有博文

2013年11月24日星期日

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Code d'Examen: ST0-025
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Security Information Manager 4.5 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 What are two ways in which new entries can be added to the Assets Table of a Symantec Security
Information Manager solution? (Choose two.)
A. through the Lookup Tables pane of the Information Manager Console
B .importing from HP OpenView through the OpenView Integration feature
C. importing from a .CSV file exported from Active Directory
D. automatic population through a supported vulnerability scanner
Answer: C, D

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NO.2 What are on-box collectors?
A. PIX, UNIX Syslog and Sygate
B. Checkpoint, Snort and PIX
C. PIX, Snort and Symantec Mail Security
D. Checkpoint, UNIX Syslog and Symantec Network Security
Answer: B

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NO.3 Events that are filtered out remain stored in the ______.
A. Event Logger
B. Incident Repository
C. Event Archive
D. Incident History
Answer: D

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NO.4 Where do you configure LiveUpdate for Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM)?
A. SSIM Start Page --> Configure Appliance --> LiveUpdate tab
B. SSIM Console --> Systems tab --> LiveUpdate tab
C. from a command prompt
D. SSIM Client --> Maintenance tab --> LiveUpdate tab
Answer: A

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NO.5 How can you determine which ports are potentially vulnerable on a given host in the Assets Table?
A. by running the NetScan user action on the asset
B. by looking at the Services tab on the asset
C. by viewing the Details tab for the asset
D. by running the Host Information report on the asset
Answer: B

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NO.6 How do you install the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) Console?
A. on the SSIM DVD, go to Tools and install the client
B. go to the SSIM web interface, download the client and click Run
C. from the SSIM appliance, deploy the console to your machine
D. No installation is necessary because SSIM is a browser-based tool.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the correct Symantec Security Information Manager incident identification pipeline?
A. collection --> normalization --> rule processing --> attack tracing --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
B. normalization --> collection --> rule processing --> attack tracing --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
C. rule processing --> normalization --> collection --> attack tracing --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
D. attack tracing --> rule processing --> normalization --> collection --> correlation to vulnerabilities -->
incident prioritization
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two are commonly used to view archived events? (Choose two.)
A. Information Manager Event Viewer
B. Archive Management Console tab
C. Query Wizard
D. Incident Management Console tab
Answer: A, C

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NO.9 Once custom rules are properly defined, the Correlation Engine _____.
A. correlates events against the rule criteria, analyzes conclusions and creates impending incidents
B. analyzes events against the rule criteria, correlates with existing conclusions and creates the
impending incident
C. analyzes events against the rule criteria, creates conclusions and correlates conclusions into incidents
D. applies individual rules to events, analyzes conclusions and correlates events into incidents
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is Device-level aggregation?
A. parsing data with data sensors
B. grouping data to reduce traffic and database size
C. forwarding event data to the appliance
D. event and log sensoring
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which menu options do you select in the user interface to shut down or reboot the Symantec Security
Information Manager (SSIM) appliance?
A. System --> Shutdown/Restart
B. SSIM Console --> Shutdown/Restart
C. SSIM --> Configure Appliance --> Shutdown/Restart
D. SSIM Console --> Systems tab
Answer: C

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NO.12 Normalization provides a unique identifier for each type of event and _____.
A. adds Correlation Manager-specific data to the translated incident
B. adds Correlation Manager-specific data to the translated event
C. maps events to a device-specific signature
D. maps incidents to a device-specific signature
Answer: B

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NO.13 By default, event archives are stored for up to _____ days.
A. 10
B. 30
C. 60
D. 90
Answer: A

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NO.14 What information does the Correlation Manager use to identify and prioritize incidents?
A. DeepSight
B. event history
C. incident
D. assets
Answer: D

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NO.15 What is the purpose of normalization?
A. to minimize the number of events affecting multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to strategize
the events more quickly
B. to correlate events across multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to compare all events equally
C. to standardize events across multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to compare all events
equally
D. to process the events across multiple devices for the Correlation Manager to strategize the events
more quickly
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which Symantec Security Information Manager component retrieves security content from Symantec?
A. LiveUpdate
B. LiveUpdate and licensed DeepSight Integration Module simultaneously
C. Licensed DeepSight Integration Module
D. Security content retrieval is automatic.
Answer: C

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NO.17 In Symantec Security Information Manager, collectors send events to _____.
A. Event Disposition
B. Event Archive
C. Event Reporting
D. Event Logger
Answer: D

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NO.18 Security data is continuously gathered from thousands of security sensors worldwide through the
integrated _____.
A. Symantec Security Information Manager
B. DeepSight Global Intelligence Network
C. Symantec Enterprise Security Manager
D. Symantec Sygate Solution
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which three ratings does the Information Manager Assets Table use to quantify the importance of the
device and help determine how to escalate security incidents related to that device? (Choose three.)
A. Confidentiality
B. Criticality
C. Availability
D. Priority
E. Integrity
Answer: A, C, E

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NO.20 When querying archived event data, how can you make a query available to other users of the system?
A. save it in Published Queries
B. save it in Public Templates
C. grant Read Query permission to the domain
D. check the Shared option on the saved query
Answer: A

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2013年7月25日星期四

Pass4Test offre de Symantec ST0-050 ST0-025 250-401 250-400 ST0-10X ST0-079 matériaux d'essai

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Code d'Examen: ST0-050

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Network Access Control 11 (STS))

Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-025

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Security Information Manager 4.5 (STS))

Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 250-401

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Management Platform 7.0 with Notification Server)

Questions et réponses: 145 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 250-400

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0)

Questions et réponses: 185 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-10X

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundation 5 for Unix (STS))

Questions et réponses: 198 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-079

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0 (STS))

Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

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NO.1 What are two functions of the Control Center? (Select two.)
A.It provides message management services.
B.It routes messages for delivery.
C.It hosts Spam Quarantine.
D.It downloads virus definitions.
E.It runs filters.
ANSWER: AC

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NO.2 Spam Rule sets are automatically downloaded from Symantec on a regular basis.
How often are these rule sets refreshed?
A.every 5 to 10 minutes
B.every 30 to 60 minutes
C.every 3 to 5 hours
D.every day
ANSWER: A

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NO.3 In addition to storing messages for Spam Quarantine and Suspect Virus Quarantine, which type of
messages can the Control Center store?
A.notification messages
B.compliance triggered messages
C.delivered messages
D.deleted messages
ANSWER: B

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NO.4 What happens to a message that is forwarded to the Suspect Virus Quarantine?
A.It is automatically deleted after one week.
B.It is rescanned when the configured hold time has elapsed.
C.It is placed in the administrator's queue for review.
D.It is forwarded to Symantec Security Response.
ANSWER: B

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NO.5 Which MTA operation is used if incoming messages need to be stopped while waiting for new virus
definitions?
A.Accept and deliver messages normally
B.Pause message scanning and delivery
C.Do not accept incoming messages
D.Accept but do not scan incoming messages
ANSWER: B

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NO.6 What is the minimum required memory size for virtual machine deployments?
A.1GB
B.2GB
C.4GB
D.6GB
ANSWER: B

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NO.7 Which two email authentication technologies are included in Symantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0?
(Select two.)
A.Sender ID
B.POP before SMTP
C.Domain Keys Identified Mail (DKIM)
D.Certified Email
E.Sender Policy Framework (SPF)
ANSWER: AE

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NO.8 A client needs to import structured customer data.
Which resource is used for this requirement?
A.records
B.dictionaries
C.regular expressions
D.patterns
ANSWER: A

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NO.9 Which feature requires Invalid Recipient Handling to be enabled?
A.Bounce Attack Prevention
B.Directory Harvest Attack recognition
C.Reputation Lookup
D.Fastpass
ANSWER: B

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NO.10 Which MTA operation is used if queues need to be drained to remove a host from use and continue
scanning and delivery of messages?
A.Accept and deliver messages normally
B.Pause message scanning and delivery
C.Do not accept incoming messages
D.Accept but do not scan incoming messages
ANSWER: C

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NO.11 What does the Fastpass feature do?
A.skips virus scanning for known viruses
B.skips resource intensive spam scanning steps
C.passes incoming mail directly to the downstream MTA
D.bypasses scanning on outgoing mail
ANSWER: B

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NO.12 To reach Message Audit logs, which tab should be selected in the Brightmail Control Center?
A.Status
B.Administration
C.Reports
D.Compliance
ANSWER: A

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NO.13 What is the recommended hard-drive size for a scanner-only virtual machine?
A.60GB
B.80GB
C.100GB
D.160GB
ANSWER: A

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NO.14 Which two tasks are performed by the SMTP session component of the MTA? (Select two.)
A.It verifies the IP address reputation with the BMServer.
B.It performs aliasing/masquerading for messages.
C.It reports the message as spam.
D.It applies the specified queue thresholds.
E.It interacts with the BMServer to access the filtering modules.
ANSWER: BD

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NO.15 Which feature of Symantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0 detects Non-Delivery Reports (NDR) created by an
attacker?
A.Directory Harvest Attack
B.Anti-Phishing Filter
C.Bounce Attack Prevention
D.Symantec Probe Network
ANSWER: C

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NO.16 An administrator has navigated through Status -> LDAP Synchronization.
Which tab will display details about an LDAP Synchronization?
A.LDAP to Scanners
B.LDAP to CC
C.LDAP Status
D.CC to LDAP
ANSWER: B

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NO.17 True file typing is a feature used to combat which behavior?
A.spamming
B.renaming
C.phishing
D.spimming
ANSWER: B

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NO.18 What are two parts of the Control Center? (Select two.)
A.Message Store
B.LDAP Sync Service
C.Brightmail Engine
D.LiveUpdate Conduit
E.Suspect Virus Quarantine
ANSWER: BE

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NO.19 What is the Heuristic Detection (Bloodhound) feature designed to detect?
A.unknown viruses
B.fuzzy matches against compliance rules
C.regex matches
D.Denial of Service (DoS) attacks
ANSWER: B

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NO.20 Which service retrieves new and updated email filters from Symantec Security Response through
HTTPS file transfer?
A.LiveUpdate
B.Conduit
C.Brightmail Engine
D.MTA
ANSWER: B

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